BIO 102 Past Questions and Answers

  1. Which of the following features is characteristic of bacteria?
    A. Presence of membrane-bound nucleus
    B. Presence of peptidoglycan in the cell wall
    C. Presence of mitochondria
    D. Presence of chloroplasts
    Answer: B
  2. Bacterial conjugation primarily involves transfer of genetic material through a
    A. Capsule
    B. Pilus
    C. Flagellum
    D. Ribosome
    Answer: B
  3. Gram-positive bacteria are distinguished by a cell wall with a thick layer of
    A. Cellulose
    B. Chitin
    C. Peptidoglycan
    D. Lipopolysaccharide
    Answer: C
  4. Which structure is absent in most prokaryotic cells?
    A. Ribosome
    B. Plasmid
    C. Mitochondrion
    D. Cell membrane
    Answer: C
  5. The bacterial process of taking up foreign DNA directly from the environment is called
    A. Transduction
    B. Transformation
    C. Conjugation
    D. Translation
    Answer: B
  6. A bacteriophage is best described as a
    A. Bacterium that consumes viruses
    B. Virus that infects bacteria
    C. Fungal spore that parasitizes bacteria
    D. Bacterial endospore
    Answer: B
  7. Viral envelopes are derived from
    A. Bacterial cell walls
    B. Host cell membranes
    C. Viral capsomeres
    D. Fungal cell walls
    Answer: B
  8. Which of the following is true of all viruses?
    A. They contain both DNA and RNA simultaneously
    B. They reproduce independently of host cells
    C. They possess a protein coat called a capsid
    D. They carry out metabolic reactions
    Answer: C
  9. An example of a DNA virus is
    A. Influenza virus
    B. HIV (a retrovirus)
    C. Herpes simplex virus
    D. Poliovirus
    Answer: C
  10. Reverse transcriptase is an enzyme used by
    A. Bacteriophages only
    B. Retroviruses to synthesize DNA from RNA
    C. All RNA viruses for replication
    D. Fungi during spore formation
    Answer: B
  11. Fungi obtain nutrients primarily by
    A. Photosynthesis
    B. Absorption of organic matter
    C. Phagocytosis like protozoa
    D. Chemosynthesis
    Answer: B
  12. The fungal cell wall is mainly composed of
    A. Cellulose
    B. Peptidoglycan
    C. Chitin
    D. Lignin
    Answer: C
  13. Mycelium refers to the fungal
    A. Reproductive spores
    B. Aggregation of hyphae
    C. Single-celled stage
    D. Protective fruiting body only
    Answer: B
  14. Yeast differs from filamentous fungi because it is typically
    A. Multicellular
    B. Photosynthetic
    C. Unicellular and reproduces by budding
    D. Made of chitin
    Answer: C
  15. Which fungus forms a mutualistic association with plant roots called mycorrhiza?
    A. Basidiomycetes
    B. Ascomycetes
    C. Glomeromycota
    D. Zygomycota
    Answer: C
  16. Algae are primarily important because they
    A. Fix atmospheric nitrogen in large amounts
    B. Serve as primary producers in aquatic ecosystems
    C. Are major decomposers in soil
    D. Are obligate parasites of fish
    Answer: B
  17. Which pigment is characteristic of green algae?
    A. Phycoerythrin
    B. Chlorophyll a and b
    C. Fucoxanthin
    D. Phycobilin only
    Answer: B
  18. Brown algae (Phaeophyceae) commonly contain which accessory pigment?
    A. Fucoxanthin
    B. Chlorophyll b only
    C. Phycoerythrin
    D. Carotene only
    Answer: A
  19. Which group of algae is most closely related to land plants?
    A. Brown algae
    B. Red algae
    C. Green algae
    D. Diatoms
    Answer: C
  20. Diatoms are distinguished by their
    A. Cellulosic cell wall
    B. Siliceous (silica) frustule
    C. Chitinous exoskeleton
    D. Calcified plates
    Answer: B
  21. Protozoa are best described as
    A. Unicellular photosynthetic algae
    B. Unicellular heterotrophic eukaryotes
    C. Multicellular animals with tissues
    D. Fungal reproductive structures
    Answer: B
  22. Which locomotory organelle is characteristic of many protozoa like Paramecium?
    A. Pili
    B. Cilia
    C. Pseudopodia
    D. Cellulose plates
    Answer: B
  23. Amoeboid movement in protozoa is achieved by
    A. Flagella rotation
    B. Flow of cytoplasm producing pseudopodia
    C. Ciliary beating
    D. Contractile vacuole action
    Answer: B
  24. Which protozoan group includes malaria-causing Plasmodium?
    A. Amoebozoa
    B. Euglenozoa
    C. Apicomplexa
    D. Ciliophora
    Answer: C
  25. Sponges (Porifera) differ from other animals by lacking
    A. Cellular specialization
    B. A true body symmetry and true tissues
    C. The ability to filter feed
    D. Porocytes
    Answer: B
  26. The water canal system in sponges functions primarily for
    A. Locomotion
    B. Circulation of water for feeding and gas exchange
    C. Production of spores
    D. Sexual reproduction only
    Answer: B
  27. Coelenterates (Cnidaria) are characterized by presence of
    A. Notochord and vertebrae
    B. Cnidocytes containing nematocysts
    C. Segmented body like annelids
    D. Exoskeleton of chitin
    Answer: B
  28. Which body plan is typical of many cnidarians such as hydra?
    A. Bilateral symmetry with head and tail
    B. Radial symmetry with a single opening (mouth)
    C. Segmented dorsoventrally flattened body
    D. Asymmetrical with many pores
    Answer: B
  29. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of fishes?
    A. Gills for respiration
    B. Lateral line system for detecting vibrations
    C. Tetrapod limb structure for walking
    D. Scales covering the body in many species
    Answer: C
  30. Which group of fishes are cartilaginous and include sharks and rays?
    A. Osteichthyes
    B. Chondrichthyes
    C. Agnatha
    D. Sarcopterygii
    Answer: B
  31. Bony fishes (Osteichthyes) are divided into which two main groups?
    A. Chondrichthyes and Agnatha
    B. Actinopterygii (ray-finned) and Sarcopterygii (lobe-finned)
    C. Amphibia and Reptilia
    D. Cephalopoda and Gastropoda
    Answer: B
  32. Amphibians are unique among vertebrates because they typically
    A. Lay shelled amniote eggs on land
    B. Have permeable skin and often a larval aquatic stage
    C. Possess feathers and beaks
    D. Retain gills throughout life in all species
    Answer: B
  33. The process by which a tadpole transforms into an adult frog is called
    A. Direct development
    B. Metamorphosis
    C. Neoteny
    D. Parthenogenesis
    Answer: B
  34. Reptiles are better adapted to terrestrial life than amphibians because they possess
    A. Lungs that are identical to fish gills
    B. Scaly skin and amniotic eggs that reduce water loss
    C. External gills and aquatic larvae
    D. Hair and mammary glands
    Answer: B
  35. Which of the following is an amniote?
    A. Frog
    B. Salamander
    C. Lizard
    D. Lamprey
    Answer: C
  36. Mammals are distinguished by the presence of
    A. Feathers
    B. Mammary glands and hair
    C. Scales and cloaca in all species
    D. Exoskeletons
    Answer: B
  37. Which mammalian group lays eggs?
    A. Marsupials
    B. Monotremes
    C. Placental mammals
    D. Edentates
    Answer: B
  38. Which of these is NOT a chordate feature present at some stage of development?
    A. Notochord
    B. Dorsal hollow nerve cord
    C. Exoskeleton of chitin
    D. Pharyngeal slits
    Answer: C
  39. The dorsal hollow nerve cord in chordates develops into the
    A. Gut
    B. Spinal cord and brain
    C. Heart and blood vessels
    D. Lungs and gills
    Answer: B
  40. Pharyngeal slits in chordates may develop into which structure in fish?
    A. Gills
    B. Lungs
    C. Inner ear ossicles
    D. Setae
    Answer: A
  41. In vascular plants, the primary function of roots is to
    A. Carry out photosynthesis
    B. Absorb water and minerals and anchor the plant
    C. Produce seeds
    D. Pollinate flowers
    Answer: B
  42. The main role of stems is to
    A. Synthesize proteins
    B. Support leaves and conduct water and food between roots and leaves
    C. Absorb carbon dioxide
    D. House reproductive gametes only
    Answer: B
  43. Which plant organ is the primary site of photosynthesis?
    A. Roots
    B. Stem
    C. Leaf
    D. Seed coat
    Answer: C
  44. The vascular tissue that conducts water and minerals from roots to leaves is
    A. Phloem
    B. Xylem
    C. Cambium
    D. Epidermis
    Answer: B
  45. Which tissue transports sugars produced in the leaves to other parts of the plant?
    A. Xylem
    B. Phloem
    C. Sclerenchyma
    D. Cortex
    Answer: B
  46. Double fertilization in angiosperms results in the formation of a zygote and
    A. Pollen tube only
    B. Endosperm (nutritive tissue)
    C. Megaspore mother cell
    D. Perisperm only
    Answer: B
  47. In flowering plants, the male gametophyte is the
    A. Ovule
    B. Pollen grain
    C. Embryo sac
    D. Sepal
    Answer: B
  48. During plant fertilization, the pollen tube typically enters the ovule through the
    A. Micropyle
    B. Chalaza
    C. Funiculus
    D. Pericarp
    Answer: A
  49. In animals, external fertilization is most common in which group?
    A. Mammals
    B. Many fishes and amphibians
    C. Birds
    D. Reptiles
    Answer: B
  50. Pollination is defined as the transfer of pollen from the
    A. Ovary to the style
    B. Anther to the stigma
    C. Stigma to the ovary
    D. Petal to the sepal
    Answer: B
  51. Which pollination agent is considered abiotic?
    A. Bees
    B. Birds
    C. Wind
    D. Bats
    Answer: C
  52. Flowers adapted for wind pollination typically have
    A. Bright colors and strong scent
    B. Large nectar rewards for pollinators
    C. Reduced petals and exposed stamens
    D. Nectar guides for insects
    Answer: C
  53. Self-pollination differs from cross-pollination in that self-pollination involves pollen transfer within the
    A. Same flower or same plant
    B. Different species
    C. Different plant population only
    D. Soil and water
    Answer: A
  54. Gymnosperms are characterized by seeds that are
    A. Enclosed in fruits
    B. Naked and borne on scales or leaves, often cones
    C. Always dispersed by animals
    D. Produced only after double fertilization
    Answer: B
  55. Which of the following is a typical gymnosperm?
    A. Pine tree
    B. Rose bush
    C. Mango tree
    D. Orchid
    Answer: A
  56. Angiosperms differ from gymnosperms primarily by having
    A. Naked seeds
    B. Seeds enclosed within a fruit and flowers as reproductive organs
    C. No vascular tissue
    D. Motile sperm for external fertilization
    Answer: B
  57. In angiosperms, the ovary develops into the
    A. Seed coat only
    B. Fruit surrounding the seed(s)
    C. Pollen grain
    D. Embryo sac
    Answer: B
  58. Which statement about seeds is correct?
    A. Seeds always require light to germinate
    B. Seeds contain an embryo and stored food within a protective coat
    C. Seeds are only produced by algae
    D. Seed plants lack vascular tissue
    Answer: B
  59. Bacterial endospores are specialized for
    A. Rapid growth in nutrient-rich conditions
    B. Long-term survival under extreme conditions
    C. Sexual reproduction in bacteria
    D. Photosynthesis
    Answer: B
  60. Which bacterial shape is described as spherical?
    A. Bacillus
    B. Coccus
    C. Spirillum
    D. Filamentous
    Answer: B
  61. Lytic and lysogenic cycles are associated with
    A. Bacterial binary fission
    B. Viral replication in bacteriophages and other viruses
    C. Fungal spore production only
    D. Protozoan encystment
    Answer: B
  62. Antiviral drugs that block viral uncoating would interfere with which step of infection?
    A. Attachment to host cell
    B. Entry and release of viral genome inside the host cell
    C. Assembly of new virions only
    D. Photosynthesis in algae
    Answer: B
  63. A septate hypha is one that
    A. Has no cell walls at all
    B. Is divided by cross-walls (septa) into compartments
    C. Is only unicellular like yeast
    D. Lacks a cell membrane
    Answer: B
  64. Which fungal group produces spores in sac-like asci?
    A. Basidiomycota
    B. Zygomycota
    C. Ascomycota
    D. Chytridiomycota
    Answer: C
  65. Which of the following algae stores food as starch and shares several features with land plants?
    A. Brown algae
    B. Green algae (Chlorophyta)
    C. Red algae
    D. Diatoms
    Answer: B
  66. Dinoflagellates are important because some species can cause
    A. Coral bleaching only
    B. Red tides and harmful algal blooms
    C. Soil erosion
    D. Fungal infections in humans
    Answer: B
  67. Protozoan cyst formation is primarily an adaptation for
    A. Reproduction by meiosis
    B. Survival in unfavorable environmental conditions
    C. Enhanced photosynthesis
    D. Parasitic attachment only
    Answer: B
  68. The choanocytes (collar cells) in sponges are primarily responsible for
    A. Reproduction by mitosis
    B. Generating water current and capturing food particles
    C. Forming the sponge skeleton only
    D. Producing spores for dispersal
    Answer: B
  69. Cnidarian nematocysts function mainly in
    A. Photosynthesis
    B. Locomotion using flagella
    C. Prey capture and defense
    D. Water filtration
    Answer: C
  70. Swim bladders in many bony fishes function chiefly in
    A. Respiration only
    B. Buoyancy control and sometimes gas exchange
    C. Digestion of prey
    D. Reproduction of eggs
    Answer: B
  71. The lateral line system in fish detects
    A. Electrical fields only
    B. Chemical gradients in water only
    C. Water movements and vibrations around the fish
    D. Magnetic fields for navigation only
    Answer: C
  72. A defining feature of amphibian skin is that it is
    A. Impermeable to water
    B. Highly vascularized and permeable to gases and water
    C. Covered in scales like reptiles
    D. Used for nectar production
    Answer: B
  73. Which reproductive strategy is typical of most mammals?
    A. External fertilization and larval metamorphosis
    B. Internal fertilization and development of embryos in the uterus (placental mammals) or pouch (marsupials) or egg-laying (monotremes)
    C. Alternation of generations like plants
    D. Binary fission
    Answer: B
  74. In chordates, the notochord is primarily a structure that
    A. Produces gametes
    B. Acts as a flexible supporting rod in the embryo
    C. Replaces the dorsal nerve cord in adults always
    D. Functions as a respiratory organ
    Answer: B
  75. The endostyle in chordates is believed to be homologous with the vertebrate
    A. Thyroid gland
    B. Liver
    C. Pancreas
    D. Adrenal gland
    Answer: A
  76. Root hairs increase root efficiency by
    A. Producing sugars for the plant
    B. Increasing the surface area available for water and mineral absorption
    C. Storing the plant’s genetic material
    D. Transporting oxygen to the phloem
    Answer: B
  77. Secondary growth resulting in an increase in girth of stems is due to activity of the
    A. Apical meristem only
    B. Lateral meristems — cambium (vascular cambium and cork cambium)
    C. Epidermal cells only
    D. Root cap cells
    Answer: B
  78. Transpiration in plants is important because it
    A. Produces seeds directly
    B. Drives the flow of water and dissolved minerals from roots to leaves via a transpiration pull
    C. Is the main method of carbon fixation
    D. Prevents photosynthesis
    Answer: B
  79. In angiosperms, the female gametophyte (embryo sac) normally contains how many nuclei before fertilization?
    A. 2
    B. 3
    C. 7
    D. 16
    Answer: C
  80. Which of the following correctly describes double fertilization?
    A. Two sperm fertilize two separate eggs making twins
    B. One sperm fertilizes the egg and another fuses with the two polar nuclei to form the endosperm
    C. Two eggs fuse to form a diploid zygote
    D. A sperm and an egg fuse to form an endospore
    Answer: B
  81. Self-incompatibility mechanisms in flowering plants function to promote
    A. Seed dormancy
    B. Cross-pollination and genetic diversity by preventing self-fertilization
    C. Pollinator attraction only
    D. Asexual reproduction only
    Answer: B
  82. Which floral structure develops into a seed?
    A. Stigma
    B. Ovule
    C. Petal
    D. Anther
    Answer: B
  83. A coelom (body cavity) is absent in which of the following?
    A. Annelids
    B. Arthropods
    C. Nematodes
    D. Platyhelminthes (flatworms)
    Answer: D
  84. Which animal phylum first shows true tissues and radial symmetry?
    A. Porifera
    B. Cnidaria (Coelenterata)
    C. Platyhelminthes
    D. Nematoda
    Answer: B
  85. In the alternation of generations in plants, the sporophyte is the generation that
    A. Produces gametes by mitosis
    B. Produces spores by meiosis
    C. Is always haploid in angiosperms
    D. Is absent in seed plants
    Answer: B
  86. In seed plants, microspores develop into
    A. Female gametophytes (embryo sacs)
    B. Male gametophytes (pollen grains)
    C. Sporophyte tissues only
    D. Endosperm directly
    Answer: B
  87. The term “phanerogams” refers to plants that
    A. Lack seeds and flowers
    B. Produce visible reproductive organs (seed plants — gymnosperms and angiosperms)
    C. Are only algae
    D. Are non-vascular bryophytes
    Answer: B
  88. Which of the following best describes a fleshy fruit?
    A. A dry fruit that splits open at maturity
    B. A fruit where the pericarp is soft and edible at maturity (e.g., tomato)
    C. A seedless structure unrelated to ovary
    D. A gymnosperm cone
    Answer: B
  89. Pollination syndrome for bird-pollinated flowers typically includes
    A. Strong sweet scent and small white flowers
    B. Dull colors and open at night only
    C. Bright colors (often red), tubular shapes, and copious nectar
    D. Wind-dispersed pollen and inconspicuous flowers
    Answer: C
  90. Which structure in flowering plants is directly involved in the protection and dispersal of seeds?
    A. Stamen
    B. Fruit
    C. Style
    D. Pollen tube
    Answer: B
  91. Which bacterial genetic exchange mechanism requires a bacteriophage?
    A. Transformation
    B. Transduction
    C. Conjugation
    D. Binary fission
    Answer: B
  92. Antibacterial antibiotics that inhibit cell wall synthesis (like penicillin) are most effective against bacteria that have
    A. A mycolic acid outer layer only
    B. A thick peptidoglycan cell wall (Gram-positive)
    C. No cell wall at all
    D. A siliceous frustule
    Answer: B
  93. Viral capsids are composed of protein subunits called
    A. Capsomeres
    B. Nucleotides
    C. Ribosomes
    D. Peptidoglycans
    Answer: A
  94. Lichens are symbiotic associations between fungi and
    A. Bacteria only
    B. Algae and/or cyanobacteria
    C. Protozoa only
    D. Flowering plants
    Answer: B
  95. Which algal group is most important for formation of coral reefs through calcium carbonate secretion?
    A. Green algae
    B. Red algae (Coralline red algae)
    C. Brown algae
    D. Diatoms
    Answer: B
  96. The main function of the placenta in eutherian (placental) mammals is to
    A. Produce gametes for offspring
    B. Facilitate exchange of nutrients, gases and wastes between maternal and fetal blood
    C. Secrete digestive enzymes for the fetus
    D. Function as the offspring’s first lung permanently
    Answer: B
  97. In plants, apical meristems are primarily responsible for
    A. Secondary growth only
    B. Primary growth leading to increase in length of roots and shoots
    C. Production of fruits only
    D. Photosynthesis in leaves only
    Answer: B
  98. Which of the following sequences correctly represents the path of pollen during pollination to fertilization in angiosperms?
    A. Anther → ovary → embryo sac → sperm delivery
    B. Anther → stigma → pollen tube → ovule (micropyle) → fertilization
    C. Stigma → anther → style → ovule
    D. Filament → sepal → stigma → endosperm
    Answer: B
  99. Gymnosperm reproduction commonly involves which structure that bears ovules?
    A. Flower stigma
    B. Cone scale (ovuliferous scale)
    C. Fruit pericarp
    D. Petal cluster
    Answer: B
  100. Which of the following best describes cross-fertilization in animals?
    A. Fusion of gametes from the same individual only
    B. Fusion of male and female gametes from two different individuals of the same species
    C. Fusion of gametes between different species frequently producing fertile offspring
    D. Asexual reproduction by budding
    Answer: B
  1. Which structure in bacteria contains most of the genetic information?
    A. Mitochondrion
    B. Nucleoid
    C. Nucleus
    D. Endoplasmic reticulum
    Answer: B
  2. Which method is commonly used to determine bacterial sensitivity to antibiotics in the lab?
    A. Gram staining
    B. Kirby-Bauer disk diffusion assay
    C. Polymerase chain reaction (PCR)
    D. Gel electrophoresis
    Answer: B
  3. Bacterial plasmids often carry genes that confer
    A. Photosynthetic ability
    B. Antibiotic resistance
    C. Eukaryotic organelles
    D. Flagellar beating control only
    Answer: B
  4. Which of the following viruses has an RNA genome and uses host ribosomes directly for translation?
    A. Adenovirus
    B. Poliovirus
    C. Herpesvirus
    D. Papillomavirus
    Answer: B
  5. A virus that integrates its genome into the host genome and remains latent is exhibiting which lifecycle?
    A. Lytic
    B. Lysogenic
    C. Transductive
    D. Budding
    Answer: B
  6. The outer protein coat of a virus is called the
    A. Envelope
    B. Capsid
    C. Cell wall
    D. Glycocalyx
    Answer: B
  7. Antigenic shift in viruses results from
    A. Point mutations only
    B. Reassortment of genome segments between strains
    C. Host immune suppression
    D. Bacterial co-infection
    Answer: B
  8. Which fungal reproductive structure is responsible for producing basidiospores?
    A. Ascus
    B. Sporangium
    C. Basidium
    D. Conidium
    Answer: C
  9. Opportunistic fungal infections in humans are most often caused by fungi in the genus
    A. Saccharomyces
    B. Candida
    C. Chlorella
    D. Nostoc
    Answer: B
  10. Which fungal group is known for forming zygospores during sexual reproduction?
    A. Ascomycota
    B. Basidiomycota
    C. Zygomycota (Mucoromycota)
    D. Glomeromycota
    Answer: C
  11. Which algal group contains species with cellulose walls and stores food as starch similar to plants?
    A. Green algae (Chlorophyta)
    B. Brown algae (Phaeophyceae)
    C. Red algae (Rhodophyta)
    D. Diatoms
    Answer: A
  12. Seaweeds like kelp belong to which major algal group?
    A. Red algae
    B. Green algae
    C. Brown algae
    D. Blue-green algae
    Answer: C
  13. Which photosynthetic pigment is most directly responsible for the green color of many algae?
    A. Carotenoids
    B. Chlorophyll a and b
    C. Phycoerythrin
    D. Fucoxanthin
    Answer: B
  14. Which algal form is unicellular and often has two unequal flagella?
    A. Diatom
    B. Dinoflagellate
    C. Brown alga
    D. Red alga
    Answer: B
  15. Which protozoan uses a feeding groove and often has flagella (e.g., Giardia)?
    A. Ciliate
    B. Amoebozoan
    C. Excavata
    D. Apicomplexan
    Answer: C
  16. Which protozoan group forms resistant cysts to survive harsh conditions?
    A. Ciliates only
    B. Many protozoa including amoebae and Giardia
    C. Only photosynthetic protozoa
    D. None of the protozoa form cysts
    Answer: B
  17. In freshwater protozoa, contractile vacuoles function to
    A. Aid in movement
    B. Expel excess water and maintain osmotic balance
    C. Digest prey particles
    D. Produce gametes
    Answer: B
  18. Which sponge cell type is primarily responsible for trapping food particles?
    A. Choanocyte
    B. Amoebocyte
    C. Pinacocyte
    D. Porocyte
    Answer: A
  19. Sponges feed mainly by
    A. Predation of multicellular prey
    B. Filter feeding via water flow through canals
    C. Photosynthesis by symbionts only
    D. Absorbing dissolved organic carbon only
    Answer: B
  20. Cnidarians possess which two basic body forms during their life cycle?
    A. Polyp and medusa
    B. Larva and pupa
    C. Tadpole and adult
    D. Cyst and trophozoite
    Answer: A
  21. Coral reefs are primarily built by cnidarians that have symbiotic algae called
    A. Zooxanthellae
    B. Phytoplankton
    C. Diatoms
    D. Cyanobacteria
    Answer: A
  22. Which feature is unique to chordates at some life stage?
    A. Segmented body with jointed appendages
    B. Dorsal hollow nerve cord and notochord
    C. Exoskeleton of chitin
    D. Radial symmetry
    Answer: B
  23. The function of pharyngeal slits in tunicates (urochordates) is mainly for
    A. Gas exchange in adult tunicates only
    B. Filter feeding in the adult sessile stage
    C. Locomotion in adults
    D. Photosynthesis
    Answer: B
  24. Jawless fishes (Agnatha) include which extant group?
    A. Sharks
    B. Lampreys and hagfishes
    C. Bony fishes
    D. Lungfishes
    Answer: B
  25. Osmoregulation in marine bony fishes often involves
    A. Constant drinking and excreting concentrated urine
    B. Excreting excess water and not drinking at all
    C. Producing large amounts of dilute urine only
    D. Using gills solely for excretion of solids
    Answer: A
  26. Which adaptation in amphibians is important for cutaneous respiration?
    A. Thick scaly skin
    B. Thin, moist, vascularized skin
    C. Feathers covering the body
    D. Thick fur
    Answer: B
  27. A reptile egg is adapted to terrestrial environments primarily because it has a
    A. Thin, permeable membrane for gas exchange only
    B. Protective shell and amniotic membranes that reduce desiccation
    C. Large amount of water but no food source
    D. Live-bearing strategy always
    Answer: B
  28. Endothermy (warm-bloodedness) is a characteristic of which vertebrate group?
    A. Reptiles only
    B. Amphibians only
    C. Mammals and birds
    D. Fishes only
    Answer: C
  29. Monotremes differ from other mammals because they
    A. Give birth to fully developed young like birds
    B. Lay eggs and have a cloaca
    C. Have pouches for embryonic development only
    D. Lack hair entirely
    Answer: B
  30. Which structure in mammals functions to secrete milk?
    A. Sweat gland
    B. Sebaceous gland
    C. Mammary gland
    D. Thyroid gland
    Answer: C
  31. The Gram stain differentiates bacteria based on differences in their
    A. DNA sequence
    B. Cell wall structure and peptidoglycan thickness
    C. Flagellar arrangement
    D. Presence of mitochondria
    Answer: B
  32. An obligate intracellular pathogen must
    A. Live only outside host cells in the environment
    B. Reproduce only inside host cells (e.g., some viruses, Chlamydia)
    C. Use only oxygen for respiration
    D. Form endospores for survival
    Answer: B
  33. Bacterial endospore formation is initiated primarily in response to
    A. Abundant nutrients
    B. Nutrient limitation and environmental stress
    C. High humidity and warmth
    D. Presence of antibiotics only
    Answer: B
  34. The Baltimore classification of viruses is based mainly on
    A. Genome type (DNA/RNA) and replication strategy
    B. Host range only
    C. Size of the capsid only
    D. Presence of envelope only
    Answer: A
  35. A segmented RNA virus is more likely to undergo rapid antigenic change via
    A. Antigenic drift only
    B. Antigenic shift through reassortment
    C. Horizontal gene transfer with bacteria
    D. Fusion with host mitochondria
    Answer: B
  36. Mycorrhizal fungi primarily help plants by improving
    A. Flower color only
    B. Water and mineral nutrient uptake (especially phosphorus)
    C. Seed dispersal by animals
    D. Pollination efficiency
    Answer: B
  37. Which fungal association is mutualistic with plant roots and enhances phosphate uptake?
    A. Lichens
    B. Mycorrhizae
    C. Pathogenic rusts
    D. Endospore-formers
    Answer: B
  38. Fungal spores produced asexually are important for
    A. Genetic recombination only
    B. Rapid colonization and dispersal of favorable genotypes
    C. Photosynthesis in fungi
    D. Vertebrate fertilization
    Answer: B
  39. Which alga is commonly used as a food source and is rich in carrageenan?
    A. Green algae
    B. Red algae (some species like Kappaphycus)
    C. Brown algae
    D. Diatoms
    Answer: B
  40. Algal blooms that produce neurotoxins and accumulate in shellfish are often caused by
    A. Cyanobacteria only
    B. Dinoflagellates (resulting in red tides)
    C. Green algae exclusively
    D. Brown algae exclusively
    Answer: B
  41. Euglenoids are unique because they can be
    A. Only heterotrophic
    B. Mixotrophic, possessing both photosynthetic pigments and the ability to ingest food
    C. Multicellular like seaweeds
    D. Aerobic only
    Answer: B
  42. Protozoan parasites that alternate between hosts and often have complex life cycles belong to which phylum in Plasmodium-like parasites?
    A. Ciliophora
    B. Amoebozoa
    C. Apicomplexa
    D. Euglenozoa
    Answer: C
  43. The feeding current in sponges is generated by beating of
    A. Cilia on choanocytes
    B. Flagella on choanocytes
    C. Contractile vacuoles
    D. Pseudopodia only
    Answer: B
  44. Sponge skeletal elements made of silica are called
    A. Spicules
    B. Setae
    C. Basidia
    D. Choanocytes
    Answer: A
  45. Cnidarian tentacles are equipped with specialized cells called
    A. Amoebocytes
    B. Cnidocytes containing nematocysts
    C. Spicules for support
    D. Setae for movement
    Answer: B
  46. The medusa stage in cnidarians is typically adapted for
    A. Sessile filter feeding
    B. Free-swimming sexual reproduction and dispersal
    C. Root-like anchoring to substrate
    D. Photosynthesis exclusively
    Answer: B
  47. In fishes, countercurrent exchange in gills maximizes
    A. Heat retention only
    B. Oxygen extraction from water into the blood
    C. Sound production in water
    D. Salt excretion only
    Answer: B
  48. Which organ in fishes primarily functions in buoyancy regulation in many bony fishes?
    A. Gills
    B. Swim bladder
    C. Liver only
    D. Lateral line organ
    Answer: B
  49. Amphibian reproduction often requires water because their eggs lack
    A. A protective shell and desiccation-resistant membranes
    B. Any yolk or nutritive tissue
    C. A nucleus
    D. A cell membrane
    Answer: A
  50. Parental care in amphibians can include which behavior?
    A. Carrying eggs on the back or in the mouth until they hatch
    B. Laying eggs and abandoning them always
    C. Feeding offspring with mammary secretions only
    D. Building amniotic eggshells only
    Answer: A
  51. Reptilian scales are composed primarily of
    A. Keratin, which reduces water loss and provides protection
    B. Chitin like insect exoskeletons
    C. Cellulose like plant walls
    D. Calcium carbonate only
    Answer: A
  52. What is the primary evolutionary advantage of the amniotic egg?
    A. Improved gas exchange in aquatic environments only
    B. Independent embryonic development on land away from water bodies
    C. Increased need for parental brooding
    D. Production of more gametes per season
    Answer: B
  53. Marsupial mammals are characterized by
    A. Development of young entirely inside a shelled egg
    B. Birth of relatively underdeveloped young that often continue development in a pouch
    C. Direct development of young with long gestation like placentals always
    D. External fertilization and aquatic larvae
    Answer: B
  54. Hair in mammals primarily evolved for
    A. Gas exchange
    B. Insulation, sensory function, and sometimes camouflage
    C. Photosynthesis
    D. Production of gametes
    Answer: B
  55. Which bacterial structure increases surface attachment and is not used for motility?
    A. Flagellum
    B. Pilus (fimbria)
    C. Capsule only
    D. Plasmid
    Answer: B
  56. Bacterial biofilms are medically important because they
    A. Rapidly die in presence of antibiotics
    B. Protect bacteria from antibiotics and host defenses when attached to surfaces
    C. Prevent bacterial adhesion to medical devices
    D. Are always beneficial to the host
    Answer: B
  57. Which method would best detect viral RNA in a patient sample?
    A. Gram staining
    B. RT-PCR (reverse transcription PCR)
    C. Disk diffusion assay
    D. Light microscopy of fixed tissue only
    Answer: B
  58. Viral envelopes contain host-derived lipids and viral-encoded glycoproteins that are important for
    A. Bacterial conjugation only
    B. Attachment and entry into specific host cells
    C. Photosynthesis within viruses
    D. Spore formation in fungi
    Answer: B
  59. Dimorphic fungi can grow as yeast or mold depending on
    A. pH only
    B. Temperature and environmental conditions
    C. Presence of animals only
    D. Light intensity exclusively
    Answer: B
  60. Lichens can colonize bare rock primarily because they are a symbiosis between fungi and
    A. Animals
    B. Photosynthetic partners (algae or cyanobacteria) that provide fixed carbon
    C. Protozoa only
    D. Bacteria producing chitin
    Answer: B
  61. Which algal group is the main contributor to primary production in open ocean surface waters?
    A. Brown algae only
    B. Diatoms and other phytoplankton (including dinoflagellates)
    C. Red algae exclusively
    D. Green terrestrial algae only
    Answer: B
  62. Which algal cell feature is particularly abundant in diatoms and contributes to their fossil record?
    A. Siliceous cell walls (frustules)
    B. Cellulose-rich walls only
    C. Calcium carbonate plates
    D. Chitinous exoskeletons
    Answer: A
  63. The apical complex in apicomplexan protozoa is adapted for
    A. Photosynthesis through chloroplasts
    B. Penetration of host cells during infection (e.g., Plasmodium)
    C. Motility via flagella
    D. Formation of cyst walls only
    Answer: B
  64. Which protozoan movement involves streaming of cytoplasm into temporary pseudopodia?
    A. Ciliary gliding
    B. Amoeboid movement
    C. Flagellar propulsion
    D. Passive drifting only
    Answer: B
  65. Sponge larvae are typically free-swimming and function in
    A. Reproduction and dispersal to new habitats
    B. Photosynthesis for adult nutrition
    C. Producing toxins for defense only
    D. Anchoring adult sponges permanently
    Answer: A
  66. Sponges lack true tissues but possess specialized cells; which cell type transports nutrients within the sponge body?
    A. Pinacocytes
    B. Amoebocytes (archaeocytes)
    C. Choanocytes only
    D. Choanocytes and porocytes combined exclusively
    Answer: B
  67. Cnidarians exhibit radial symmetry—this is most advantageous for animals that
    A. Move quickly in one direction only
    B. Interact with the environment equally from all sides, e.g., sessile or drifting organisms
    C. Burrow in sediment exclusively
    D. Live inside other animals always
    Answer: B
  68. Coral bleaching occurs when symbiotic algae are lost from corals due to
    A. Decreased salinity only
    B. Environmental stress such as elevated water temperature and light changes
    C. Predation by fish only
    D. Increased coral growth rates only
    Answer: B
  69. Which sensory system in fishes detects low-frequency water displacement caused by predators or prey?
    A. Vision only
    B. Lateral line system
    C. Olfaction only
    D. Electroreception exclusively
    Answer: B
  70. Some bony fishes use internal fertilization; which structure often facilitates this?
    A. Operculum
    B. Modified fin or intromittent organ (e.g., gonopodium)
    C. Swim bladder only
    D. Lateral line system
    Answer: B
  71. The amphibian class includes which orders?
    A. Anura (frogs), Caudata/Urodela (salamanders), Gymnophiona (caecilians)
    B. Squamata only
    C. Crocodylia only
    D. Testudines only
    Answer: A
  72. Paedomorphosis (neoteny) in amphibians refers to
    A. Retention of juvenile features in reproductive adults (e.g., axolotl retaining gills)
    B. Complete loss of juvenile traits at maturity only
    C. Evolution of amniotic eggs in amphibians
    D. Development of feathers from skin
    Answer: A
  73. The reptilian heart generally differs from the amphibian heart by having
    A. No ventricles at all
    B. More complete septation between ventricles in many reptiles for more efficient separation of oxygenated and deoxygenated blood
    C. A single atrium only
    D. Pulmonary gills for respiration
    Answer: B
  74. Which sense is particularly well-developed in many reptiles, aiding prey detection (e.g., pit vipers)?
    A. Echolocation
    B. Infrared (heat) sensing via pit organs and excellent chemical sensing via Jacobson’s organ (vomeronasal)
    C. Magnetoreception exclusively
    D. Lateral line detection only
    Answer: B
  75. The placenta of eutherian mammals facilitates immunological tolerance by
    A. Preventing any contact between maternal and fetal tissues
    B. Expressing molecules that modulate maternal immune responses and allow nutrient exchange without rejection
    C. Producing antibodies for the fetus only
    D. Excluding oxygen from fetal circulation
    Answer: B
  76. Viviparity refers to a reproductive mode where animals
    A. Lay eggs with large yolks
    B. Give birth to live young after internal development (live-bearing)
    C. Produce spores instead of gametes
    D. Reproduce only by fragmentation
    Answer: B
  77. Koch’s postulates are used to establish a causal relationship between a microbe and a disease; one postulate requires that the microbe be
    A. Present in all healthy hosts only
    B. Isolated from diseased organisms and grown in pure culture
    C. Resistant to all antibiotics by default
    D. Visible by the naked eye only
    Answer: B
  78. Bacterial transformation experiments helped show that genetic material is
    A. Protein only
    B. DNA (as shown by Avery, MacLeod, and McCarty following Griffith’s work)
    C. Lipid only
    D. Carbohydrate only
    Answer: B
  79. Antigenic drift is mainly caused by
    A. Reassortment of segmented genomes
    B. Accumulation of point mutations in viral surface proteins over time
    C. Bacterial conjugation events
    D. Host antibody production only
    Answer: B
  80. Which antiviral strategy would inhibit viral entry into host cells?
    A. Reverse transcriptase inhibitors
    B. Neutralizing antibodies that block receptor binding or fusion inhibitors that block membrane fusion
    C. DNA polymerase inhibitors only
    D. Cell wall synthesis blockers
    Answer: B
  81. Which fungal disease is commonly contracted from inhalation of environmental spores and can cause systemic infection in immunocompromised individuals?
    A. Candidiasis only
    B. Histoplasmosis or Aspergillosis (depending on species)
    C. Athlete’s foot only
    D. Tooth decay
    Answer: B
  82. Saprophytic fungi obtain nutrients by
    A. Parasitizing living hosts only
    B. Decomposing dead organic matter and absorbing nutrients
    C. Photosynthesizing sugars from sunlight
    D. Fixing atmospheric nitrogen only
    Answer: B
  83. Algal alternation of generations in some groups involves a multicellular haploid gametophyte and a multicellular diploid sporophyte; which plant group shows similar alternation?
    A. Bryophytes and pteridophytes (and all land plants) show alternation of generations
    B. Animals only
    C. Fungi only
    D. Bacteria only
    Answer: A
  84. Which algal structure helps diatoms regulate buoyancy and light exposure?
    A. Gas vesicles and shape of frustule in some species
    B. Roots only
    C. Xylem vessels
    D. Stomata only
    Answer: A
  85. Giardia lamblia (a protozoan) typically causes disease in humans by
    A. Destroying red blood cells only
    B. Colonizing the small intestine and causing diarrheal illness after ingestion of cysts in contaminated water
    C. Forming cysts in the lungs only
    D. Infecting muscle tissue primarily
    Answer: B
  86. Entamoeba histolytica causes tissue destruction by
    A. Photosynthetic activity in the gut
    B. Ingesting host cells (trophozoite trophic behavior) and producing cytolytic enzymes
    C. Competing for oxygen in blood only
    D. Forming rigid shells around host cells
    Answer: B
  87. Coral and many cnidarians obtain most of their energy from
    A. Hunting small fish with net-like appendages only
    B. Photosynthetic symbionts (zooxanthellae) within their tissues
    C. Ingesting sand particles only
    D. Symbiosis with fungi only
    Answer: B
  88. Which vertebrate class was the first to evolve true jaws?
    A. Agnatha (jawless fishes)
    B. Gnathostomes (jawed vertebrates, including early fishes like placoderms)
    C. Amphibia only
    D. Mammalia only
    Answer: B
  89. In evolutionary terms, tetrapods evolved from which fish group?
    A. Cartilaginous fishes exclusively
    B. Lobe-finned fishes (Sarcopterygii) such as lungfishes and coelacanths
    C. Tunicates directly
    D. Ray-finned fishes (Actinopterygii) exclusively
    Answer: B
  90. Amphibian lungs are generally less efficient than mammalian lungs because they rely more on
    A. Cutaneous respiration and buccal pumping in many species rather than a highly ventilated alveolar system
    B. Gill respiration only
    C. Tracheal systems like insects only
    D. Passive diffusion across scales only
    Answer: A
  91. Keratinized scales in reptiles reduce water loss and are homologous to which mammalian structure?
    A. Hair and nails (keratinized epidermal derivatives)
    B. Feathers only
    C. Mammary glands only
    D. Bones only
    Answer: A
  92. Placental mammals differ from marsupials primarily in that they have
    A. No internal gestation at all
    B. Prolonged intrauterine development supported by a complex placenta, resulting in more developed newborns at birth
    C. Egg-laying reproduction always
    D. External fertilization only
    Answer: B
  93. Which mammalian group includes species that carry their young in a pouch (marsupium)?
    A. Monotremes
    B. Marsupials
    C. Placental mammals
    D. Reptiles
    Answer: B
  94. Bacterial chemotaxis allows cells to
    A. Move randomly without direction
    B. Move toward attractants and away from repellents using flagella and sensory pathways
    C. Divide more quickly in all conditions
    D. Form eukaryotic organelles
    Answer: B
  95. Horizontal gene transfer among bacteria can occur via which mechanisms?
    A. Transformation, transduction, and conjugation
    B. Mitosis and meiosis only
    C. Binary fission only
    D. Photosynthesis-mediated gene transfer
    Answer: A
  96. Which viral family includes enveloped viruses with segmented negative-sense RNA genomes often causing influenza?
    A. Retroviridae
    B. Orthomyxoviridae (influenza viruses)
    C. Adenoviridae
    D. Herpesviridae
    Answer: B
  97. Antifungal agents like azoles primarily target which fungal component?
    A. Bacterial peptidoglycan
    B. Ergosterol synthesis in fungal cell membranes
    C. Viral capsid proteins
    D. Plant cellulose synthesis
    Answer: B
  98. Which term describes a close physical association where both partners benefit (e.g., mycorrhizae)?
    A. Parasitism
    B. Mutualism
    C. Commensalism only
    D. Competition only
    Answer: B
  99. Which algal pigment gives red algae their color and allows them to live at greater depths?
    A. Chlorophyll b only
    B. Phycoerythrin, which absorbs blue-green light for photosynthesis at depth
    C. Fucoxanthin only
    D. Phycobilin absent in red algae
    Answer: B
  100. Dinoflagellate bioluminescence is usually produced by a chemical reaction involving which organelle or structure?
    A. Nucleus only
    B. Specialized scintillons and luciferin-luciferase reactions
    C. Chloroplasts only
    D. Ribosomes only
    Answer: B
  101. Which protozoan disease is transmitted by tsetse flies and causes African sleeping sickness?
    A. Malaria
    B. Trypanosomiasis (Trypanosoma brucei)
    C. Amoebiasis
    D. Giardiasis
    Answer: B
  102. The life cycle stage of many parasitic protozoa that is adapted for transmission between hosts is the
    A. Trophozoite only
    B. Cyst or spore-like stage that resists environmental extremes
    C. Vegetative cell only
    D. Budding yeast form only
    Answer: B
  103. In sponges, archaeocytes function in
    A. Producing gametes, digestion, and differentiation into other cell types (totipotent)
    B. Pumping water only
    C. Photosynthesis only
    D. Producing nematocysts only
    Answer: A
  104. Coral reefs provide important ecosystem services including
    A. Reducing coastal erosion, providing habitat, and supporting fisheries and tourism
    B. Producing fossil fuels only
    C. Fixing atmospheric nitrogen for terrestrial plants only
    D. Replacing mangrove forests exclusively
    Answer: A
  105. Which order of fishes contains species with lungs or lung-like swim bladders used for aerial breathing?
    A. Osteoglossiformes only
    B. Some ray-finned fishes (e.g., lungfishes are Sarcopterygii but some Actinopterygii have air-breathing adaptations)
    C. Chondrichthyes only
    D. All teleosts without exception
    Answer: B
  106. External fertilization in many fish species increases offspring number but typically results in
    A. Greater parental care per offspring than internal fertilization
    B. High mortality and many small offspring with little parental investment
    C. No predation on eggs and larvae at all
    D. Single offspring produced per reproductive event
    Answer: B
  107. Cutaneous respiration in amphibians requires a moist environment because oxygen diffusion across skin is facilitated by
    A. Dry, scaly skin layers only
    B. A thin, moist epidermis rich in capillaries
    C. Thick keratin layers exclusively
    D. Feathers or fur only
    Answer: B
  108. The amniotic membrane in amniotes performs which function?
    A. Stores food for the embryo only
    B. Cushions the embryo and contains amniotic fluid, protecting it from mechanical shock and desiccation
    C. Produces sperm only
    D. Photosynthesizes for embryo nutrition
    Answer: B
  109. Which reptile group includes turtles and tortoises?
    A. Squamata
    B. Testudines (Chelonia)
    C. Crocodylia only
    D. Aves only
    Answer: B
  110. Bird lungs differ from mammalian lungs by having a system of air sacs that allow
    A. Tidal flow without cross-current exchange
    B. Unidirectional airflow through parabronchi for more efficient gas exchange during flight
    C. No gas exchange at all
    D. Only oxygen storage, not exchange
    Answer: B
  111. Which mammalian sense organ is highly developed for echolocation in bats?
    A. Vision only
    B. Auditory system specialized for producing and receiving ultrasonic calls
    C. Lateral line only
    D. Olfaction only
    Answer: B
  112. The human thyroid gland is evolutionarily related to which chordate structure?
    A. Endostyle in lower chordates
    B. Notochord only
    C. Pharyngeal slit exclusively
    D. Dorsal nerve cord only
    Answer: A
  113. In plants, sieve-tube elements are associated with which cells that help with loading and maintenance?
    A. Vessel elements only
    B. Companion cells that assist in sugar transport in phloem
    C. Guard cells only
    D. Tracheids exclusively
    Answer: B
  114. Root nodules in legumes house symbiotic bacteria (Rhizobium) that perform which function?
    A. Photosynthesis for the plant only
    B. Nitrogen fixation, converting atmospheric N₂ to ammonia usable by the plant
    C. Production of oxygen for the plant only
    D. Phosphorus solubilization exclusively
    Answer: B
  115. Apical dominance in plants is primarily regulated by which class of hormones?
    A. Gibberellins only
    B. Auxins produced at the shoot tip that inhibit lateral bud outgrowth
    C. Ethylene only
    D. Abscisic acid exclusively
    Answer: B
  116. Which tissue provides mechanical support in plants and often contains lignified secondary walls?
    A. Parenchyma only
    B. Sclerenchyma and xylem elements (sclerenchyma fibers and tracheary elements)
    C. Epidermis only
    D. Phloem only
    Answer: B
  117. In angiosperms, pollen grains typically germinate to produce a pollen tube that delivers sperm to the embryo sac; the two sperm cells originate from
    A. Meiosis in the pollen mother cell only
    B. Mitotic divisions in the male gametophyte after pollen formation
    C. Fusion of two pollen grains only
    D. Endosperm formation directly only
    Answer: B
  118. Anthers produce pollen in which floral whorl?
    A. Innermost whorl only
    B. Androecium (male reproductive whorl)
    C. Gynoecium (female whorl)
    D. Corolla only
    Answer: B
  119. Self-incompatibility in flowering plants is often controlled genetically to prevent inbreeding by recognition between
    A. Pollen and stigma alleles (S-locus interactions)
    B. Petal color and scent only
    C. Soil microbes only
    D. Fruit and seed coat only
    Answer: A
  120. A fleshy fruit derived from a single ovary with multiple seeds is called a
    A. Dry dehiscent fruit only
    B. Berry (if entire pericarp is fleshy) or drupe depending on structure
    C. Cone only
    D. Samara exclusively
    Answer: B
  121. Which animal group shows metameric segmentation most clearly?
    A. Porifera only
    B. Annelida (segmented worms) and Arthropoda present segmentation; Chordates show internal segmentation too
    C. Cnidaria exclusively
    D. Nematoda only
    Answer: B
  122. Which phylum includes animals with a complete digestive tract and a pseudocoelom?
    A. Platyhelminthes
    B. Nematoda (roundworms)
    C. Cnidaria only
    D. Porifera only
    Answer: B
  123. The coelom in coelomate animals functions to
    A. Replace the need for a gut entirely
    B. Provide a fluid-filled cavity for organ suspension, movement, and sometimes hydrostatic support
    C. Produce gametes only
    D. Act as the primary respiratory surface exclusively
    Answer: B
  124. Which of the following is an example of an invertebrate deuterostome?
    A. Arthropoda
    B. Echinodermata (sea stars, sea urchins)
    C. Mollusca only
    D. Annelida only
    Answer: B
  125. Alternation of generations in plants results in a multicellular sporophyte producing spores by meiosis and a multicellular gametophyte producing gametes by
    A. Meiosis only
    B. Mitosis (gametophyte produces gametes by mitosis)
    C. Binary fission only
    D. Fragmentation only
    Answer: B
  126. Microsporangia in seed plants produce which structure?
    A. Megaspores only
    B. Microspores that develop into pollen grains (male gametophytes)
    C. Zygotes directly only
    D. Endosperm tissue exclusively
    Answer: B
  127. Endosperm is nutritive tissue derived from which ploidy level in angiosperms?
    A. Haploid only
    B. Typically triploid (fusion of sperm with two polar nuclei)
    C. Diploid only always
    D. Tetraploid exclusively
    Answer: B
  128. The integument(s) of an ovule develop into the
    A. Fruit wall only
    B. Seed coat (testa) that protects the embryo inside the seed
    C. Endosperm only
    D. Embryo sac exclusively
    Answer: B
  129. Which pollination mechanism favors cross-pollination by transferring pollen between different plants via animals?
    A. Wind pollination only
    B. Zoophily — adaptations to attract animal pollinators (color, scent, nectar)
    C. Self-pollination always
    D. Water pollination exclusively
    Answer: B
  130. Evolutionarily, phanerogams are significant because they represent
    A. Non-seed plants only
    B. Seed-bearing plants (gymnosperms and angiosperms) that dominate many terrestrial ecosystems and have diverse reproductive adaptations
    C. Aquatic algae only
    D. Fungi with fruiting bodies only
    Answer: B

2024/2025 QUESTIONS

Q1 From Animal Diversity

  1. Sexual reproduction in Protozoa is not by the following except

😎 a. Conjugation

😍 b. Binary fission

❤️ c. Budding

👍 d. Multiple fission

Correct Answer: a. Conjugation

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SUBJECTS: BIO 102 – Studentsdash

Q2 From Animal Diversity

2. Sub-phylum of the Phylum Sarcomastigophora is all except

😎 a. Sarcodina

😍 b. Mastigophora

❤️ c. Opalinata

👍 d. Ciliophora

Correct Answer: d. Ciliophora

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SUBJECTS: BIO 102 – Studentsdash

Q3 From Animal Diversity

3. Pseudopodia in amoeba is for

😎 a. Digestion

😍 b. Excretion

❤️ c. Locomotion

👍 d. Feeding

Correct Answer: c. Locomotion

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SUBJECTS: BIO 102 – Studentsdash

Q4 From Animal Diversity

4. Pseudopodia are how many types

😎 a. 5

😍 b. 4

❤️ c. 3

👍 d. 2

Correct Answer: b. 4

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SUBJECTS: BIO 102 – Studentsdash

Q5 From Animal Diversity

5. Lobopodia are

😎 a. This with branching network

😍 b. Broad and blunt

❤️ c. Thin and long

👍 d. Long, thin with canal support

Correct Answer: b. Broad and blunt

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SUBJECTS: BIO 102 – Studentsdash

Q6 From Animal Diversity

6. Which of the following exhibit Polymorphism

😎 a. Trypanosoma

😍 b. Hydra

❤️ c. Euglena

👍 d. Opalinata

Correct Answer: a. Trypanosoma

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SUBJECTS: BIO 102 – Studentsdash

Q7 From Animal Diversity

7. Opalinata have how many nuclei?

😎 a. Two or more

😍 b. One

❤️ c. 2

👍 d. No nucleus

Correct Answer: a. Two or more

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Q8 From Animal Diversity

8. Opalinata runarum are found where

😎 a. In the rectum of fishes

😍 b. In man

❤️ c. In the rectum of frogs and toads

👍 d. In pigs

Correct Answer: c. In the rectum of frogs and toads

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Q9 From Animal Diversity

9. Reproduction in Sarcomastigophora is mainly by means of

😎 a. Cell division

😍 b. Budding

❤️ c. Conjugation

👍 d. Isogamy

Correct Answer: a. Cell division

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Q10 From Animal Diversity

10. Which of these produce a simple resistant spore

😎 a. Opalinata

😍 b. Ciliophora

❤️ c. Apicomplexa

👍 d. Sponges

Correct Answer: c. Apicomplexa

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Q11 From Animal Diversity

11. Asexual reproduction in Ciliophora is always by

😎 a. Budding

😍 b. Binary fission

❤️ c. Transverse binary fission

👍 d. Conjugation

Correct Answer: c. Transverse binary fission

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Q12 From Animal Diversity

12. Phylum porifera are the

😎 a. Sponges

😍 b. Hydra

❤️ c. Amoeba

👍 d. Aves

Correct Answer: a. Sponges

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Q13 From Animal Diversity

13. Sponges are what level of organization

😎 a. Cellular

😍 b. Tissue

❤️ c. Organ

👍 d. System

Correct Answer: a. Cellular

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Q14 From Animal Diversity

14. Sponges are sessile means

😎 a. Many

😍 b. Few

❤️ c. Movable

👍 d. Immovable

Correct Answer: d. Immovable

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Q15 From Animal Diversity

15. Sponges have how many main cell types?

😎 a. 4

😍 b. 3

❤️ c. 5

👍 d. 1

Correct Answer: b. 3

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Q16 From Animal Diversity

16. Example of calcispongiae is

😎 a. Bath sponge

😍 b. Sycon

❤️ c. Hyalonemma

👍 d. None of the above

Correct Answer: b. Sycon

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Q17 From Animal Diversity

17. Hyalospongiae are otherwise called

😎 a. Bath sponge

😍 b. Glass sponge

❤️ c. Small sponge

👍 d. None of the above

Correct Answer: b. Glass sponge

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Q18 From Animal Diversity

18. A representative of phylum coelenterata is an

😎 a. Hydra

😍 b. Amoeba

❤️ c. Flatworms

👍 d. Protozoa

Correct Answer: a. Hydra

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Q20 From Animal Diversity

20. Phylum Cnidaria are

😎 a. Aquatic

😍 b. Mostly marine

❤️ c. Terrestrial

👍 d. None of the above

Correct Answer: b. Mostly marine

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Q21 From Animal Diversity

21. Hydra bear tentacles called

😎 a. Mesoglea

😍 b. Mesoderm

❤️ c. Nematoblasts

👍 d. Parapodia

Correct Answer: c. Nematoblasts

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Q22 From Animal Diversity

22. Reproduction in Hydra is by

😎 a. Budding

😍 b. Isogamy

❤️ c. Anisogamy

👍 d. Alternation of generation

Correct Answer: d. Alternation of generation

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Q23 From Animal Diversity

23. Which of the sub division of phylum Cnidarians has the polyp to alternate with medusa

😎 a. Anthozoa

😍 b. Scyphozoa

❤️ c. Hydrozoa

👍 d. None of the above

Correct Answer: c. Hydrozoa

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Q24 From Animal Diversity

24. Sea anemone belongs to

😎 a. Anthozoa

😍 b. Hydrozoa

❤️ c. Scyphozoa

👍 d. None of the above

Correct Answer: a. Anthozoa

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Q25 From Animal Diversity

25. Mesuoid is dominant and polyp is refused or absent in

😎 a. Hydrozoa

😍 b. Scyphozoa

❤️ c. Anothozoa

👍 d. None of the above

Correct Answer: b. Scyphozoa

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Q26 From Animal Diversity

26. Platyhelminthes are ___

😎 a. Earthworms

😍 b. Roundworms

❤️ c. Flatworms

👍 d. Lukworms

Correct Answer: c. Flatworms

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Q27 From Animal Diversity

27. The classification of Flatworms is based on the following except

😎 a. Life cycle

😍 b. Nature of larvae

❤️ c. Feeding method

👍 d. Morphology of adults

Correct Answer: c. Feeding method

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Q28 From Animal Diversity

28. Platyhelminthes has how many classification?

😎 a. 4

😍 b. 6

❤️ c. 5

👍 d. 7

Correct Answer: b. 6

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Q29 From Animal Diversity

29. A parasite that lives in the bronchial chamber of fresh water crustaceans is

😎 a. Opalinata runarum

😍 b. Planaria

❤️ c. Temnocephila

👍 d. Polystoma

Correct Answer: c. Temnocephila

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Q30 From Animal Diversity

30. A typical example of cestodaria is

😎 a. Polystema

😍 b. Amphilina

❤️ c. Planaria

👍 d. Tapeworm

Correct Answer: b. Amphilina

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Q31 From Animal Diversity

31. Trematoda are mostly

😎 a. Ectoparasites

😍 b. Endoparasites

❤️ c. A fluid feeder

👍 d. A ciliary feeder

Correct Answer: b. Endoparasites

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Q32 From Animal Diversity

32. Tapeworm is a

😎 a. Cestoda

😍 b. Monogenea

❤️ c. Trematoda

👍 d. Turbellaria

Correct Answer: a. Cestoda

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Q33 From Animal Diversity

33. The space between the intestine and body wall of a nematode is called

😎 a. Coelom

😍 b. True coelom

❤️ c. Pseudocoelom

👍 d. None of the above

Correct Answer: c. Pseudocoelom

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Q34 From Animal Diversity

34. Nematode differs from platyhelminthes in all of the following except

😎 a. Shape

😍 b. Absence of cilia and suckers

❤️ c. Presence of digestive tract

👍 d. None of the above

Correct Answer: d. None of the above

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Q35 From Animal Diversity

35. The posterior sense organ of the class Aphasmidia of nematode is the

😎 a. Phasmid

😍 b. Amphids

❤️ c. Podia

👍 d. All of the above

Correct Answer: a. Phasmid

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Q36 From Animal Diversity

36. Which of the following is not Triploblastic

😎 a. Annelids

😍 b. Platyhelminthes

❤️ c. Coelenterata

👍 d. All of the above

Correct Answer: c. Coelenterata

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Q37 From Animal Diversity

37. Which of the following undergoes metameric segmentation

😎 a. Annelids

😍 b. Platyhelminthes

❤️ c. Nematodes

👍 d. Porifera

Correct Answer: a. Annelids

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Q38 From Animal Diversity

38. Class huridinea are the

😎 a. Leeches

😍 b. Earthworm

❤️ c. Tubeworms

👍 d. Roundworms

Correct Answer: a. Leeches

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Q39 From Animal Diversity

39. Which of the following lack Chaetae

😎 a. Huridinea

😍 b. Ologochatea

❤️ c. Polychaeta

👍 d. None of the above

Correct Answer: a. Huridinea

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Q40 From Animal Diversity

40. Annelids uses what for excretion?

😎 a. Flame cells

😍 b. Lung book

❤️ c. Malpighian tubule

👍 d. Nephridia

Correct Answer: d. Nephridia

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2023/2024 QUESTIONS

1. Two examples of monoecious plants are _ and _.
Answer: (e.g., corn and cucumber)


2. The function of a stigma is _.
Answer: (to receive pollen)


3. An undifferentiated sepal and petal is known as _.
Answer: (tepals)


4. Carpel is also referred to as _.
Answer: (pistil)


5. Which floral part makes the flower conspicuous?
Answer: (petals)


6. The essential parts of a flower are _ and _.
Answer: (stamens and carpels)


7. What type of placentation is present in Carica papaya?
Answer: (parietal placentation)


8. Give two examples of plants with axile placentation.
Answer: (e.g., cotton and hibiscus)


9. What is responsible for the non-biodegradability of pollen and spores?
Answer: (the presence of sporopollenin in the outer layer)


10. An apocarpous carpel refers to _.
Answer: (a flower with separate carpels)


11. What components make up a virus?

  • (a) A protein shell and nucleic acid
  • (b) A protein shell and mitochondria
  • (c) Nucleic acid and cell membrane
  • (d) Nucleic acid, cell wall, and cell membrane
    Answer: (a) A protein shell and nucleic acid

12. What is the name for the protein shell of a virus that encloses the genetic material?

  • (a) Virion
  • (b) Capsid
  • (c) Peplomers
  • (d) Capsomers
    Answer: (b) Capsid

13. Which statement is true about a virion?

  • (a) It’s a lytic phage
  • (b) It’s a lysogenic phage
  • (c) It refers to the viral capsid
  • (d) It’s an infectious and fully formed viral particle
    Answer: (d) It’s an infectious and fully formed viral particle

14. What forms the genome of a virus?

  • (a) DNA
  • (b) RNA
  • (c) Either DNA or RNA
  • (d) Both DNA and RNA
    Answer: (c) Either DNA or RNA

15. Which is the largest known virus?

  • (a) Megavirus chilensis
  • (b) Arbovirus
  • (c) Herpesvirus
  • (d) Mumps virus
    Answer: (a) Megavirus chilensis

16. Which statement is true about capsomeres?

  • (a) They are individual units of the capsid
  • (b) They are viral proteins for replication
  • (c) They are units of nucleic acid in viruses
  • (d) All of the above
    Answer: (a) They are individual units of the capsid

17. Which statement is true about peplomeres?

  • (a) They are individual units of capsids
  • (b) They are spike-like projections on enveloped viruses
  • (c) They are projections on the viral membrane
  • (d) They are spike-like projections on capsids
    Answer: (b) They are spike-like projections on enveloped viruses

18. An icosahedral capsid is made up of what?

  • (a) Hexagonal capsomeres
  • (b) Pentagonal capsomeres
  • (c) Triangular capsomeres
  • (d) Both a and b
    Answer: (d) Both a and b

19. Which virus has complex symmetry?

  • (a) T4 bacteriophage
  • (b) Adenovirus
  • (c) Influenza virus
  • (d) All of the above
    Answer: (a) T4 bacteriophage

20. Which of the following statements is true about viruses?

  • (a) They are free-living
  • (b) They are obligate parasites
  • (c) Both (a) and (b)
  • (d) None of the above
    Answer: (b) They are obligate parasites

21. What is the name of the region where double-stranded single circular DNA is found in the prokaryotic cell?

  • (a) Protonucleus
  • (b) Nucleus
  • (c) Nucleoid
  • (d) Nucleoplasm
    Answer: (c) Nucleoid

22. In prokaryotic cells, ribosomes are:

  • (a) 70 S
  • (b) 80 S
  • (c) 60S + 40S
  • (d) 50S + 40S
    Answer: (a) 70 S

23. The two domains to which prokaryotes are classified are:

  • (a) Bacteria and Protista
  • (b) Bacteria and Archaea
  • (c) Archaea and Eukarya
  • (d) Eukarya and Monera
    Answer: (b) Bacteria and Archaea

24. When a water sample from a hot thermal vent was tested, it was found to contain a single-celled organism having a cell wall lacking a nucleus. What is its classification most likely?

  • (a) Eukarya
  • (b) Fungi
  • (c) Protista
  • (d) Archaea
    Answer: (d) Archaea

25. Which of these is a characteristic of prokaryotic cells?

  • (a) Absence of cell organelles
  • (b) Absence of nucleus
  • (c) Presence of 70S ribosomes
  • (d) All of these
    Answer: (d) All of these

26. A difference between eukaryotic and prokaryotic cells is in having:

  • (a) Ribosomes
  • (b) Cell wall
  • (c) Nuclear membrane
  • (d) None of the above
    Answer: (c) Nuclear membrane

27. In prokaryotes, the hair-like outgrowths which attach to the surface of other bacterial cells are:

  • (a) Flagella
  • (b) Pili
  • (c) Capsule
  • (d) Plasmids
    Answer: (b) Pili

28. A component of prokaryotic cells:

  • (a) Plasma membrane
  • (b) DNA
  • (c) Cytoplasm
  • (d) All of these
    Answer: (d) All of these

29. The process of recombination in prokaryotes takes place in this way:

  • (a) Transformation
  • (b) Conjugation
  • (c) Transduction
  • (d) All of the above
    Answer: (d) All of the above

30. The flagella of a prokaryotic and eukaryotic cell vary in:

  • (a) Mode of functioning and location in the cell
  • (b) Types of movement and placement in the cell
  • (c) Microtubular organization and function
  • (d) Microtubular organization and type of movement
    Answer: (c) Microtubular organization and function

31. Which of the following protects the unopened flower?

  • A) Petal
  • B) Stamen
  • C) Anther
  • D) Sepal
    Answer: D) Sepal

32. An anther is a part of:

  • A) Stigma
  • B) Stamen
  • C) Ovary
  • D) Petal
    Answer: B) Stamen

33. Pollen grains are collected by:

  • A) Anther
  • B) Petal
  • C) Stigma
  • D) Sepal
    Answer: C) Stigma

34. Which part of the flower becomes the seed?

  • A) Ovule
  • B) Ovary
  • C) Anther
  • D) Stigma
    Answer: B) Ovary

35. The style is a part of:

  • A) Stamen
  • B) Pistil
  • C) Filament
  • D) Petal
    Answer: B) Pistil

36. The stalk holding the flower is known as the:

  • A) Filament
  • B) Stigma
  • C) Carbuncle
  • D) Peduncle
    Answer: D) Peduncle

37. Which of the following make up the corolla as a single unit?

  • A) Petals
  • B) Stamens
  • C) Sepals
  • D) Pollens
    Answer: A) Petals

38. What is the name given to flowering plants?

  • A) Gymnosperms
  • B) Bryophy

tes

  • C) Pteridophytes
  • D) Angiosperms
    Answer: D) Angiosperms

39. Monocot flowers generally tend to have a number of petals that is divisible by:

  • A) Three
  • B) Five
  • C) Seven
  • D) Two
    Answer: A) Three

40. Floral scent of a flower is produced in:

  • A) Stigma
  • B) Ovary
  • C) Petals
  • D) Stamen
    Answer: C) Petals

41. What type of symmetry do most flowers exhibit?

  • A) Bilateral
  • B) Radial
  • C) Asymmetrical
  • D) None of the above
    Answer: B) Radial

42. Which process leads to the formation of seeds in flowering plants?

  • A) Photosynthesis
  • B) Pollination
  • C) Fertilization
  • D) Germination
    Answer: C) Fertilization

43. Which part of the plant is primarily responsible for photosynthesis?

  • A) Roots
  • B) Stem
  • C) Leaves
  • D) Flowers
    Answer: C) Leaves

44. In which part of the plant does water absorption mainly occur?

  • A) Stems
  • B) Leaves
  • C) Roots
  • D) Flowers
    Answer: C) Roots

45. Which pigment is responsible for the green color in plants?

  • A) Carotene
  • B) Chlorophyll
  • C) Anthocyanin
  • D) Xanthophyll
    Answer: B) Chlorophyll

46. What is the main function of xylem in vascular plants?

  • A) Transport sugars
  • B) Transport water
  • C) Provide structural support
  • D) Store nutrients
    Answer: B) Transport water

47. Which part of the plant contains the ovules?

  • A) Stigma
  • B) Style
  • C) Ovary
  • D) Anther
    Answer: C) Ovary

48. Which type of plant reproduces using spores?

  • A) Gymnosperms
  • B) Angiosperms
  • C) Ferns
  • D) Mosses
    Answer: C) Ferns

49. Which structure is involved in the exchange of gases in plants?

  • A) Roots
  • B) Stomata
  • C) Xylem
  • D) Phloem
    Answer: B) Stomata

50. What is the primary function of the root system in plants?

  • A) Photosynthesis
  • B) Anchoring the plant and absorbing water and nutrients
  • C) Reproduction
  • D) Gas exchange
    Answer: B) Anchoring the plant and absorbing water and nutrients

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