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ENT 211 (GST 201) Past Questions and Answers

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  1. Which of the following is considered a person’s fourth essential need?
    A. Food
    B. Shelter
    C. Interaction
    D. Clothing
    Answer: C
  2. The method by which people exchange ideas, information, and symbols is called:
    A. Yelé communication
    B. Communication
    C. Visualization
    D. Idealism
    Answer: B
  3. When someone has a spoken dialogue with themselves, it is known as:
    A. Interpersonal communication
    B. Intrapersonal communication
    C. Mass communication
    D. All of the above
    Answer: B
  4. A face-to-face discussion involving two or more individuals is termed:
    A. Group communication
    B. Intrapersonal communication
    C. Interpersonal communication
    D. Mass communication
    Answer: C
  5. Communicating with large audiences through media channels is referred to as:
    A. Mass communication
    B. Community communication
    C. Herd communication
    D. Group communication
    Answer: A
  6. The form of early communication that used pictorial symbols painted on cave walls or trees is called:
    A. Picograms
    B. Micograms
    C. Pictographs
    D. All of the above
    Answer: C
  7. In the word “photography,” “photo” means _______, and “graphy” means _______.
    A. Photo = “photo,” light; graphy = “study”
    B. Photo = “photo,” picture; graphy = “table”
    C. Photo = “photo,” light; graphy = “writing”
    D. Photo = “photo,” light; graphy = “speaking”
    Answer: C
  8. One drawback of early cameras was that they:
    A. Were extremely inexpensive
    B. Could capture images
    C. Could not capture and preserve permanent images
    D. None of the above
    Answer: C
  9. The Latin term camera obscura translates into English as:
    A. Light house
    B. Light chamber
    C. Darkened chamber
    D. Darkened house
    Answer: C
  10. Who created the first camera obscura?
    A. Aristotle
    B. Bittner
    C. Francis Bacon
    D. Leonardo da Vinci
    Answer: C
  11. Photographs are important for all of the following reasons except:
    A. Without them, newspapers and magazines would be dull and filled only with text
    B. A photo can convey a story more effectively than words alone
    C. Photos simplify complex subjects by showing a visual representation
    D. None of the above
    Answer: D
  12. What distinguishes a professional photographer from an amateur?
    A. An amateur can’t take photos correctly
    B. A professional only photographs wealthy clients
    C. They do not work in the same environment
    D. A professional earns income from photography, while an amateur takes photos for enjoyment
    Answer: D
  13. A freelance photographer is someone who:
    A. Takes photos for pleasure
    B. Captures images and sells them to anyone willing to pay, making a living this way
    C. Works as an apprentice
    D. None of the above
    Answer: B
  14. All of the following are types of photographers except:
    A. Freelance photographer
    B. Amateur photographer
    C. Professional photographer
    D. Pattern photographer
    Answer: D
  15. Which of these is not a category of photographs?
    A. Documentary photographs
    B. War photographs
    C. Music photographs
    D. Wedding photographs
    Answer: C
  16. A skilled photographer must:
    A. Have formal education
    B. Have sharp vision to spot photo opportunities
    C. Be creative and imaginative
    D. All of the above
    Answer: D
  17. A photographer’s career path might include being:
    A. A photojournalist
    B. A commercial photographer
    C. A freelancer
    D. All of the above
    Answer: D
  18. Which is not needed to start a photography studio?
    A. A camera
    B. A computer equipped with photo-editing hardware and software
    C. An unreliable electricity source
    D. A color photo printer
    Answer: C
  19. To set up a darkroom in a studio, one must ensure the following:
    A. The room is completely light-proof
    B. The room has ample space
    C. The room has a photo dryer
    D. All of the above
    E. None of the above
    Answer: D
  20. Every camera needs to have these features:
    A. Be light-proof
    B. Provide a way to hold and advance the film
    C. Contain a device to gather and focus light rays
    D. None of the above
    E. All of the above
    Answer: E
  21. When ordinary citizens cover an event and send their reports to news organizations, it’s called:
    A. Citizen journalism
    B. I-reporting
    C. Instant journalism
    D. All of the above
    Answer: D
  22. All of these are main types of camera bodies except:
    A. Viewfinder
    B. Single-lens reflex (SLR)
    C. Twin-lens reflex (TLR)
    D. View-through technical
    E. All of the above
    F. None of the above
    Answer: F
  23. In photography, combining the primary colors red, blue, and green to manipulate color is known as:
    A. Aperture
    B. Additive color mixing
    C. Astigmatism
    D. Aberration
    Answer: B
  24. The process of giving extra exposure to certain parts of an image when enlarging is called:
    A. Circle of confusion
    B. Burning in
    C. Color cast
    D. Aperture adjustment
    Answer: B
  25. Circles that are too large for the eye to perceive as a single point are termed:
    A. Flog
    B. Focal length
    C. Circle of confusion
    D. Color cast
    Answer: C
  26. An unwanted overall tint in a photograph is called a:
    A. Color negative
    B. Color reversal
    C. Fog
    D. Color cast
    Answer: D
  27. Film containing tones that are the opposite of those in the original subject is referred to as:
    A. Color negative
    B. Color cast
    C. Color temperature
    D. Contrast film
    Answer: A
  28. The temperature, in Kelvin, at which a theoretical blackbody emits light matching a given source’s hue is:
    A. Emitting temperature
    B. Color temperature
    C. Cooling temperature
    D. None of the above
    Answer: B
  29. The opening in a lens that allows light to enter, controlled by an iris diaphragm, is called:
    A. Light source
    B. Lens
    C. Aperture
    D. Angle of view
    Answer: C
  30. Projecting an image onto a semi-transparent screen from behind, viewed from the audience side, is known as:
    A. Front projection
    B. Rear projection
    C. Common projection
    D. Circular projection
    Answer: B
  31. The technique of giving less exposure to certain parts of an image during enlargement is called:
    A. Astigmatism
    B. Filming
    C. Dodging
    D. Filtering
    Answer: C
  32. The visible halo around a bright spot in an image is called:
    A. Aperture artifact
    B. Fog
    C. Gamma rim
    D. Halation
    Answer: D
  33. The transition effect where one image gradually fades out as another fades in is called:
    A. Dissolve
    B. Reverse
    C. Dodging
    D. Fogging
    Answer: A
  34. The distance between the lens’s optical center and the film plane (where the subject is sharply focused) is known as:
    A. Aperture
    B. Focal length
    C. Focal height
    D. Focal depth
    Answer: B
  35. The base material on which the light-sensitive emulsion is coated is called:
    A. Base
    B. Bench
    C. Farm
    D. None of the above
    Answer: A
  36. Unintended darkening in film emulsion caused by stray light is called:
    A. Grain
    B. Fog
    C. Gamma
    D. All of the above
    Answer: B
  37. The light that falls on a surface is referred to as:
    A. Divergent light
    B. Convergent light
    C. Reflected light
    D. Incident light
    Answer: D
  38. When parts of a scene are separated by using sharp focus for some areas and blur for others, this effect is known as:
    A. Definite focus
    B. Live focus
    C. Differential focus
    D. None of the above
    Answer: C
  39. The overlapping metal plates in a lens that open to form a variable-sized circle for light to pass through are called:
    A. Diaphragm blades
    B. Contrast blades
    C. Depth-of-field blades
    D. Fog blades
    Answer: A
  40. The apparent shift in an object’s position when the observer’s point of view changes is called:
    A. Pentaprism effect
    B. Parallax
    C. Rangefinder
    D. Reflection
    Answer: B
  41. The capacity of a lens and film to reproduce fine details accurately is called:
    A. Sync
    B. Sensitivity
    C. Resolution
    D. Zoom capability
    Answer: C
  42. The variation in density between the darkest and lightest parts of a subject or image is termed:
    A. Tonal range
    B. Transmission
    C. Zooming
    D. Sync
    Answer: A
  43. The passage of light rays through a transparent or translucent medium is called:
    A. Zooming
    B. Transmission
    C. Sync
    D. Spectrum
    Answer: B
  44. All of the following are types of light transmission except:
    A. Divergent transmission
    B. Diffuse transmission
    C. Direct transmission
    D. Selective transmission
    Answer: A
  45. When light passes through without scattering, it is referred to as ______ transmission:
    A. Diffuse transmission
    B. Direct transmission
    C. Selective transmission
    D. Regular transmission
    Answer: B
  46. Early photographic emulsions used light-sensitive salt compounds. All of the following are examples except:
    A. Sodium chloride
    B. Chloride (in general)
    C. Silver bromide
    D. Iodide
    Answer: A
  47. Events that occur at exactly the right moment, appearing to coincide irresistibly, are said to exhibit:
    A. Coolness
    B. Sync
    C. Professionalism
    D. None of the above
    Answer: B
  48. A special glass block with reflective surfaces that corrects an image vertically and horizontally is known as a:
    A. Hexprism
    B. Panchromatic prism
    C. Parallax prism
    D. Pentaprism
    Answer: D
  49. A transparent element with curved surfaces designed to converge or diverge light through refraction is called a:
    A. Mirror
    B. Lens
    C. Glass block
    D. Prism
    Answer: B
  50. The comparison of tonal contrast between the original subject and the reproduced image is called:
    A. Gamma
    B. Fog
    C. Dodging
    D. Depth of focus
    Answer: A
  51. The range in depth within which subjects appear acceptably sharp in a photograph is called the:
    A. Zone of focus
    B. Depth of field
    C. Depth of focus
    D. All of the above
    Answer: B
  52. In film processing, the first step that makes the latent (invisible) image visible is the:
    A. Development stage
    B. Latent stage
    C. Final stage
    D. None of the above
    Answer: A
  53. A film emulsion’s responsiveness to the color and intensity of light is known as:
    A. Intensity
    B. Sensitivity
    C. Transmission
    D. Shutter speed
    Answer: B
  54. Who discovered that silver salts react to light?
    A. Johann H. Schulze
    B. Aristotle
    C. Karl W. Scheele
    D. Bow Skill
    Answer: A
  55. Who found that adding ammonia to the silver-salt image could help preserve it longer?
    A. Johann H. Schulze
    B. Aristotle
    C. Karl W. Scheele
    D. Bow Skill
    Answer: C
  56. A photograph taken without the subject’s awareness is referred to as a:
    A. Real photograph
    B. Semi-photograph
    C. Candid photograph
    D. Daguerreotype
    Answer: C
  57. All of the following are types of photographs except:
    A. Aware photographs
    B. Semi-aware photographs
    C. Real photographs
    D. Candid photographs
    Answer: C
  58. _________ is the most commonly eaten breakfast in Nigeria, often given as a gift to travelers, and is one of the cheapest fast foods.
    A. Yam
    B. Bread
    C. Rice
    D. Beans
    Answer: B
  59. Bread made from wheat provides a good source of:
    A. Carbohydrates
    B. Protein
    C. B-group vitamins
    D. All of the above
    Answer: D
  60. Whole-meal bread is a good source of dietary fiber.
    A. True
    B. False
    Answer: A
  61. Which of the following are essential for making a basic cake?
    A. Flour
    B. Butter
    C. Eggs
    D. All of the above
    Answer: D
  62. Icing sugar is not recommended for cake making.
    A. True
    B. False
    Answer: A
  63. Which of these is not a typical example of a cake?
    A. Sprite pound cake
    B. Chocolate pound cake
    C. Fresh apple cake
    D. None of the above
    Answer: D
  64. Which of the following are recognized types of cakes?
    A. Luscious cake
    B. Sour cream coffee cake
    C. Carrot cake
    D. All of the above
    Answer: D
  65. Cinnamon is commonly used in which type of cake?
    A. Rhubarb cake
    B. Old-fashioned applesauce cake
    C. Peach cake
    D. All of the above
    Answer: D
  66. Peach cake is considered a type of cake.
    A. True
    B. False
    Answer: A
  67. Which of these is not a recognized cake variety?
    A. Dirt cake
    B. Crazy cake
    C. Coca-Cola cake
    D. None of the above
    Answer: D
  68. Flavorful buttermilk biscuits often include _________ for seasoning.
    A. Ginger
    B. Thyme
    C. Garlic
    D. Sugar
    Answer: B
  69. The typical baking time for thyme biscuits is:
    A. 10 minutes
    B. 1 hour
    C. 15 minutes
    D. 25 minutes
    Answer: C
  70. Thyme biscuits can be prepared ahead of time and reheated in an oven at:
    A. 325°C
    B. 325°F
    C. 100°C
    D. 250°C
    Answer: B
  71. Clements (2000) stated that nothing compares to the satisfaction of home baking.
    A. True
    B. False
    Answer: A
  72. Prior to baking, one should preheat the oven to the correct temperature.
    A. True
    B. False
    Answer: A
  73. A well-functioning oven for baking should be:
    A. Well-insulated
    B. Draft-proof
    C. All of the above
    D. None of the above
    Answer: C
  74. The objectives of studying bakery arts include all of the following except:
    A. Mastering essential baking skills
    B. Being able to produce baked goods for personal and commercial use
    C. Learning how to earn a livelihood from baking
    D. All of the above
    Answer: D
  75. Ingredients for making ginger cookies include:
    A. Granulated sugar
    B. Molasses
    C. Baking soda
    D. All of the above
    Answer: D
  76. The keys to confident and successful baking are:
    A. Practice
    B. Patience
    C. Enthusiasm
    D. All of the above
    Answer: D
  77. _________ is one of Nigeria’s most popular snacks and is well-known globally.
    A. Shawarma
    B. Cake
    C. Rice
    D. Plantain chips
    Answer: B
  78. Cake is used to celebrate which occasions?
    A. Birthdays
    B. Weddings
    C. Anniversaries
    D. All of the above
    Answer: D
  79. Canned cake is an example of a cake variety.
    A. True
    B. False
    Answer: A
  80. Which of the following is the most affordable fast food in Nigeria?
    A. Rice and stew
    B. Bread
    C. Okpa
    D. None of the above
    Answer: B
  81. What is the most commonly eaten breakfast in Nigeria, often given as a gift by travelers?
    A. Cake
    B. Bread
    C. Indomie
    D. Yam
    Answer: B
  82. Whole-meal bread is a good source of:
    A. Vitamin C
    B. Dietary fiber
    C. All of the above
    D. None of the above
    Answer: B
  83. Bread made from wheat is a good source of:
    A. Carbohydrates
    B. Protein
    C. B-group vitamins
    D. All of the above
    Answer: D
  84. When preheating the oven for baking, the correct temperature is usually:
    A. 325°F
    B. 400°F
    C. 250°F
    D. 100°F
    Answer: A
  85. The evolution of human food procurement progressed from hunting and gathering to _______.
    A. War
    B. Technology
    C. Animal husbandry
    D. None of the above
    Answer: C
  86. _______ refers to raising fish in a controlled water environment to achieve maximum productivity economically.
    A. Aquaculture
    B. Horticulture
    C. Hunting
    D. Husbandry
    Answer: A
  87. Compared to other agricultural ventures in Nigeria, _______ is still largely untapped.
    A. Horticulture
    B. Hunting
    C. Husbandry
    D. Aquaculture
    Answer: D
  88. All of the following are benefits of fish farming except:
    A. It creates jobs in rural areas
    B. It restocks natural water bodies with fingerlings
    C. It is an inexpensive, reliable way to produce fish
    D. None of the above
    Answer: D
  89. The process of evaluating and selecting a site for building a fish pond, involving field observations and area condition studies, is called:
    A. Site selection
    B. Topography studies
    C. Husbandry planning
    D. All of the above
    Answer: A
  90. Major criteria for choosing a fish pond site include all of the following except:
    A. Water supply
    B. Soil composition, rocks, and vegetation
    C. Topography
    D. None of the above
    Answer: D
  91. _______ simply describes the shape and contour of the land, whether it’s saucer-shaped, sloping, flat, or hilly.
    A. Topography
    B. Geography
    C. Anthropology
    D. Geology
    Answer: A
  92. Ways to assess whether soil is suitable for fish pond construction include all of the following except:
    A. Avoid sites with excessive trees
    B. If a handful of soil feels smooth, it likely has enough clay; if it’s gritty, it contains too much sand
    C. If a molded ball of soil remains intact when dropped, it has sufficient clay for pond construction
    D. All of the above
    Answer: D
  93. A container or area that holds water in which fish are reared to various sizes is called a:
    A. Zoo
    B. Fish pond
    C. Fish bank
    D. None of the above
    Answer: B
  94. Fish ponds may take all of these shapes except:
    A. Rectangular
    B. Square
    C. Triangular
    D. Irregular (shapeless)
    Answer: D
  95. If your first attempt measures 40 paces in 100 feet and your second measures 42 paces in 100 feet, the average number of paces per 100 feet is:
    A. 41
    B. 52
    C. 40
    D. 42
    Answer: A
  96. The formula for finding the area of a circular pond is:
    A. ½ × 4 × B
    B. (A + C / 2) × B
    C. πr²
    D. None of the above
    Answer: C
  97. Steps involved in constructing a pond include all of the following except:
    A. Staking out foundation lines to the designed dimensions
    B. Excavating the foundation to a depth of 0.6 m (2 ft)
    C. Laying the pond floor with a mixture of cement, sand, gravel, and water in a 1:2:4 ratio
    D. All of the above
    Answer: D
  98. Hatchling tanks can be made of:
    A. Concrete
    B. Fiberglass
    C. Plastic
    D. All of the above
    Answer: D
  99. Topography simply means a description of the land’s shape.
    A. True
    B. False
    Answer: A
  100. Sexually mature fish kept in captivity for breeding purposes are known as:
    A. Broodstock
    B. Livestock
    C. Predators
    D. All of the above
    Answer: A
  101. Methods of artificial fertilization of fish eggs include:
    A. Wet method
    B. Dry method
    C. Super-dry method
    D. All of the above
    Answer: D
  102. In artificial fertilization, when eggs and milt are simultaneously stripped into a small amount of water, it is called the:
    A. Dry method
    B. Wet method
    C. Super-dry method
    D. None of the above
    Answer: B
  103. When gametes are placed into a dry receptacle and mixed before adding water, that method is referred to as:
    A. Dry method
    B. Wet method
    C. Super-dry method
    D. None of the above
    Answer: A
  104. The technique in which eggs are stripped into a sieve to drain off excess fluids before fertilization is the:
    A. Wet method
    B. Dry method
    C. Super-dry method
    D. None of the above
    Answer: C
  105. Feed is the single most expensive ongoing input in fish farming.
    A. True
    B. False
    Answer: A
  106. Of the following, which food substance has the highest protein content?
    A. Groundnut
    B. Rice
    C. Vegetables
    D. Fruits
    Answer: A
  107. Which of the following contains more protein than groundnut?
    A. Maize
    B. Rice
    C. Soybean
    D. Sugar cane
    Answer: C
  108. Aquaculture is another term for:
    A. Fish farming
    B. Animal husbandry
    C. None of the above
    Answer: A
  109. A major criterion for selecting a fish pond site includes:
    A. Topography
    B. Water supply
    C. Soil composition, rock, and vegetation
    D. All of the above
    Answer: D
  110. Rearing fish in an enclosed water system is called:
    A. Aquaculture
    B. Fish farming
    C. Both A and B
    D. None of the above
    Answer: C
  111. Compared to other agricultural ventures in Nigeria, aquaculture remains largely undeveloped.
    A. True
    B. False
    Answer: A
  112. “Topography” refers to the description of land shape—whether it’s saucer-shaped, flat, hilly, etc.
    A. Geography
    B. Angiography
    C. Topography
    D. None of the above
    Answer: C
  113. Major criteria for choosing a site for pond construction include:
    A. Water supply
    B. Soil composition, rock, and trees
    C. Topography
    D. All of the above
    Answer: D
  114. Benefits of fish farming include all of the following except:
    A. Generating employment in rural areas
    B. Reducing pressure on wild fisheries
    C. Providing a cheaper, more reliable way to produce fish
    D. All of the above
    Answer: D
  115. In fish farming, soils are evaluated primarily for fertility rather than water retention capacities.
    A. True
    B. False
    Answer: B
  116. Technological advances have been applied to cultivating various fish species such as:
    A. Catfish
    B. Salmon
    C. Tilapia
    D. All of the above
    Answer: D
  117. Fish ponds can be shaped in all the following forms except:
    A. Rectangular
    B. Circular
    C. Zigzag
    D. Triangular
    Answer: C
  118. A facility or container holding water for rearing fish to different sizes is called a:
    A. Fish pond
    B. Pacing tank
    C. Chaining tank
    D. None of the above
    Answer: A
  119. To measure distance by pacing, one uses a field tape to check distances.
    A. True
    B. False
    Answer: A
  120. For a trapezoidal pond with four sides and right angles, the formula to calculate area is:
    A. (A + C/2) × B = Area
    B. (A + C)/2 × (B + D)/2 = Area
    C. ½ × 4 × B = Area
    D. None of the above
    Answer: A
  121. Young fish are also referred to as:
    A. Hatchlings
    B. Fingerlings
    C. Small fish
    D. None of the above
    Answer: B
  122. All of the following are necessary pond components except:
    A. Inlet
    B. Outlet
    C. Monk (control structure)
    D. None of the above
    Answer: D
  123. Hatchling tanks can be constructed from:
    A. Concrete
    B. Fiberglass
    C. Plastic
    D. All of the above
    Answer: D
  124. Correct selection criteria for male breeders include all of the following except:
    A. The tip of the dorsal fin has a reddish-brown hue
    B. The papilla appears red
    C. The papilla extends 0.2 cm to 0.5 cm past the anal fin
    D. All of the above
    Answer: D
  125. Common hormones used to induce spawning include:
    A. Pituitary extracts
    B. Deoxycorticosterone acetate (DOCA)
    C. Human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG)
    D. All of the above
    Answer: D
  126. The technique of injecting pituitary gland extract or hormone for spawning induction is called:
    A. Hydroxylation
    B. Hypophysation
    C. Saponification
    D. Pituitarism
    Answer: B
  127. A modern synthetic hormone often used at a dosage of 5 ml per kg of female fish weight is:
    A. Deoxycorticosterone acetate
    B. Human chorionic gonadotropin
    C. Ovaprim
    D. Pituitary hormone extract
    Answer: C
  128. Which hormone does not affect egg or milt maturation but instead stimulates egg laying?
    A. Deoxycorticosterone acetate (DOCA)
    B. Ovaprim
    C. Pituitary hormone extract
    D. None of the above
    Answer: A
  129. In the wet method of artificial fertilization:
    A. Eggs and milt are stripped together into a small amount of water
    B. Gametes are placed in a dry receptacle and mixed before adding water
    C. Both A and B
    D. None of the above
    Answer: A
  130. Feed accounts for more than 68% of the production cost in fish ponds.
    A. True
    B. False
    Answer: B
  131. When formulating diets for fish, major factors include:
    A. Suitability for the species being cultured
    B. Local availability and consistency of supply
    C. Cost
    D. All of the above
    Answer: D
  132. The most economical diet formulation is best achieved using a specialized computer program.
    A. True
    B. False
    Answer: A
  133. The formula to calculate the area of a circular pond is:
    A. πr²
    B. (π/360) × 2πr
    C. (A + C/2) × B
    D. None of the above
    Answer: A
  134. Common hatchery equipment includes:
    A. Hatchling tank
    B. Net
    C. Ruler
    D. All of the above
    Answer: D
  135. The concepts of _______ and _______ are vital to any nation’s socio-economic growth:
    A. Entrepreneurship and culture
    B. Entrepreneurship and intrapreneurship
    C. Organization and theory
    D. Entrepreneurial personality and culture
    Answer: B
  136. Countries that have the most _______ at any given time tend to be global leaders:
    A. Innovators
    B. Inventors
    C. Creators
    D. Cultural icons
    Answer: A
  137. According to economists, an entrepreneur is someone who combines resources—such as capital and labor—in ways that increase value. To which group does this definition belong?
    A. Capitalist philosophers
    B. Investors
    C. Psychologists
    D. Economists
    Answer: D
  138. Psychologists view entrepreneurs as individuals who are:
    A. Capitalist philosophers
    B. Ordinary businesspeople
    C. Motivated by nonconformity
    D. Economists
    Answer: C
  139. Capitalist philosophers define an entrepreneur as a person who:
    A. Creates wealth and generates employment for others
    B. Engages in aggressive competition
    C. Works in existing organizations
    D. Belongs to ordinary businesspeople
    Answer: A
  140. Investors see entrepreneurs as:
    A. Valuable allies worth investing in
    B. Competitors to avoid
    C. Mostly untrustworthy
    D. Irrelevant to market growth
    Answer: A
  141. An intrapreneur is best described as an entrepreneur who operates within an existing:
    A. Cooperative
    B. Government bureaucracy
    C. Corporate organization
    D. Nonprofit
    Answer: C
  142. According to Gilford Pinchot, an intrapreneur is:
    A. Albert Shapiro’s definition
    B. Karl Vesper’s definition
    C. Joseph Schumpeter’s definition
    D. Gilford Pinchot’s definition
    Answer: D
  143. Which of these is not a key element in forming new enterprises and motivating entrepreneurial behavior?
    A. Possibility
    B. Desirability
    C. Perception
    D. Conviction
    Answer: D
  144. _______ plays a crucial role in shaping human behavior.
    A. Conviction
    B. Perception
    C. Possibility
    D. Desirability
    Answer: B
  145. Desirability is a strong driving factor in starting an enterprise.
    A. True
    B. False
    Answer: B
  146. When evaluating whether to start a new venture, all of these factors matter except:
    A. Organizational techniques
    B. Social infrastructure
    C. Knowledge background
    D. Role models and mentorship
    E. Government policies at all levels
    Answer: A
  147. In entrepreneurship, it is the ________ that matters most, not necessarily new technology.
    A. Innovation
    B. Invention
    C. Creation
    D. Ideas
    E. Market
    Answer: E
  148. MTN entered the Nigerian market from _________ in the year ________.
    A. United States, 2000
    B. United States, 1999
    C. South Africa, 2000
    D. South Africa, 2021
    Answer: C
  149. The motivational phrase “If he can do it, I can too” most strongly influences which aspect of entrepreneurship?
    A. Never giving up
    B. Self-efficacy
    C. Overcoming failure
    D. Hustling spirit
    Answer: B
  150. What does SMEDAN stand for?
    A. Small and Medium Enterprises Development Agency of Nigeria
    B. Small and Muddle Entertainment Development Agenda of Nations
    C. Simple and Middle Education Development Agency of Nigeria
    D. Simple and Medium Enterprises Development Agenda of Nigeria
    Answer: A
  151. The milestone age range for entrepreneurs is between:
    A. 30 to 60 years
    B. 18 to 25 years
    C. 25 to 50 years
    D. 18 to 30 years
    Answer: C
  152. Entrepreneurs’ ages can be viewed in ______ different aspects.
    A. 2
    B. 4
    C. 3
    D. 7
    Answer: A
  153. A history of frustrating jobs often motivates someone toward entrepreneurship.
    A. True
    B. False
    Answer: A
  154. The most significant motivators for entrepreneurship include all except:
    A. Not working for someone else
    B. Freedom
    C. Independence
    D. Earning money
    Answer: D
  155. The degree to which two people in a relationship are connected and interdependent is called:
    A. Social network diversity
    B. Centrality of networks
    C. General channels of networking
    Answer: B
  156. The importance of individuals within a network, and the number of people in it, is referred to as:
    A. General channels of networking
    B. Connection
    C. Centrality of networks
    D. Social network diversity
    Answer: C
  157. Mentors provide connections in ______ different forms.
    A. 12
    B. 6
    C. 2
    D. 7
    Answer: C
  158. Who founded the Wal-Mart empire in the USA?
    A. Sam Walton
    B. Michael Dell
    C. Richard Branson
    D. Walter Elias Disney
    Answer: A
  159. Michael Ibru, a notable Nigerian businessman, hails from which state?
    A. Ogun
    B. Delta
    C. Rivers
    D. Ekiti
    Answer: B
  160. Who is recognized for building one of the largest modern Nigeria-owned conglomerates?
    A. Aliko Dangote
    B. Godfrey Ohuabunwa
    C. Bode Akindele
    D. Michael Ibru
    Answer: D
  161. At what age did Michael Dell first encounter a computer?
    A. 15 and 18 (two possible ages given)
    B. 20
    C. 19
    Answer: A
  162. Which of these is not one of Michael Dell’s accolades?
    A. Entrepreneur of the Year (Inc. magazine)
    B. Man of the Year (PC Magazine)
    C. Top CEO in American business
    D. CEO of the Year (PC Magazine)
    Answer: D
  163. Who defined the “3 Cs” of e-commerce?
    A. Michael Dell
    B. Mary Kay
    C. Sam Walton
    D. Steve Jobs
    Answer: A
  164. Which of the following is not one of e-commerce’s “3 Cs”?
    A. Content
    B. Corporation
    C. Commerce
    D. Community
    Answer: B
  165. In which year did The University of Texas at Austin receive a US $50 million grant from the Michael and Susan Dell Foundation?
    A. April 18, 2009
    B. November 19, 1999
    C. May 15, 2006
    D. January 31, 2007
    Answer: C
  166. Mary Kay Ash’s third book, “You Can Have It All,” was published in:
    A. August 1985
    B. September 2007
    C. May 2008
    D. January 1978
    Answer: A
  167. Richard Branson’s well-known brand is called:
    A. Ibru
    B. Wal-Mart
    C. Dell
    D. Virgin
    Answer: D
  168. Who received a knighthood for contributions to entrepreneurship?
    A. Richard Branson
    B. Steve Jobs
    C. Mary Kay
    D. Walter Elias Disney
    Answer: A
  169. Walt Disney is best known for his impact in which field?
    A. Sports
    B. Choreography
    C. Entertainment
    D. Fashion
    Answer: C
  170. Which individual won seven Emmy Awards?
    A. Godfrey Uveti Nzamujo
    B. Walter Elias Disney
    C. Richard Branson
    D. Sam Walton
    Answer: B
  171. Walt Disney and his brother pooled their money to start a cartoon studio in:
    A. Nollywood
    B. Bollywood
    C. Hollywood
    D. None of the above
    Answer: C
  172. __________ refers to the human inclination to move beyond basic food gathering toward organized livestock rearing.
    A. War
    B. Technology
    C. Husbandry
    D. None of the above
    Answer: C
  173. _______ is the practice of raising fish in a closed water system for maximum yield.
    A. Aquaculture
    B. Horticulture
    C. Hunting
    D. Husbandry
    Answer: A
  174. Of the following aquacultural practices, all are benefits of fish farming except:
    A. Provides rural employment
    B. Replenishes natural water bodies with fingerlings
    C. Is an inexpensive, reliable fish production method
    D. None of the above
    Answer: D
  175. In entrepreneurial research, “market” matters more than:
    A. Innovation
    B. Invention
    C. Creation
    D. Ideas
    Answer: E
  1. Which of the following is not considered a field of functional expertise and research?
    A. Engineering
    B. Biological sciences
    C. Development studies
    D. Evolution
    Answer: D
  2. “Deutero-learning” refers to:
    A. Learning by experimentation and experience
    B. The capacity to continually learn through trial and error
    C. Only option A
    D. Both A and B
    Answer: D
  3. Which pair represents actual obstacles encountered by entrepreneurs?
    A. Financial and environmental
    B. Personal and environmental
    C. Social and environmental
    D. Mental and environmental
    Answer: B
  4. In cultivating entrepreneurial mindsets, insights from which two disciplines are most essential?
    A. Psychology and economics
    B. Invention and innovation
    C. Creativity and innovation
    D. Invention and economics
    Answer: A
  5. Who argued that entrepreneurship is driven by a need for achievement?
    A. Sam Walton
    B. Steve Jobs
    C. Hagan
    D. David McClelland
    Answer: D
  6. Who is credited with inventing the modern camera?
    A. Sir Frank Whittle
    B. George Eastman
    C. Edward Chavern
    D. Steve Sasson
    Answer: B
  7. The invention of the clock is attributed to:
    A. Christiaan Huygens
    B. Lord Roger Mansfield
    C. Robert Goddard
    D. John Logie Baird
    Answer: A
  8. Who is recognized as the inventor of the microscope?
    A. Daniel Gabriel Fahrenheit
    B. Thomas Alva Edison
    C. Hans Lippershey
    D. Cornelius Drebbel
    Answer: C
  9. Is it true that Christopher Latham Sholes discovered the typewriter?
    A. True
    B. False
    Answer: B
  10. ________ are the forces that determine whether entrepreneurial activities succeed or fail.
    A. External environment
    B. Business environment
    C. Internal environment
    D. Legal environment
    Answer: B
  11. The external environment is also referred to as the ________.
    A. Micro environment
    B. Mini environment
    C. Simple environment
    D. Macro environment
    Answer: D
  12. The business environment is divided into how many segments?
    A. 2
    B. 4
    C. 8
    D. 10
    Answer: A
  13. Which of the following is an element of the external environment?
    A. Board of directors
    B. Employees
    C. Technological environment (ALI-PEST)
    D. Customers
    Answer: C
  14. The forces that generate opportunities or threats for entrepreneurial activity, especially for intrapreneurs, are part of the ________.
    A. Technological environment
    B. Internal environment
    C. Business environment
    D. Legal environment
    Answer: B
  15. The internal environment is also referred to as the ________.
    A. Macro environment
    B. Simple environment
    C. Mini environment
    D. Micro environment
    Answer: D
  16. An entrepreneur has significant control over which environment?
    A. True: the internal environment
    B. False
    Answer: A
  17. All of these are elements of the internal environment except:
    A. Owners
    B. Employees
    C. Economic factors
    D. Customers
    E. Board of directors
    Answer: C
  18. Which environment exerts important influences—positive or negative—on entrepreneurial endeavors?
    A. International environment
    B. External environment
    C. Internal environment
    D. Political environment
    Answer: B
  19. Factors provided by nature, which impact entrepreneurial activity, belong to the ________.
    A. Business environment
    B. Legal environment
    C. Technological environment
    D. Act of God environment
    Answer: D
  20. Which of these is not considered an element of the Act of God environment?
    A. Earthquakes
    B. Landslides
    C. Tornadoes
    D. Floods
    E. Wind
    Answer: E
  21. The environment encompassing business activities of organizations in countries other than the host nation is called the ________.
    A. International environment
    B. Political environment
    C. Legal environment
    D. Internal environment
    Answer: A
  22. The environment that includes legal, political, socio-cultural, economic, and technological trends in other countries is termed the ________.
    A. Political environment
    B. Legal environment
    C. Socio-cultural environment
    D. International environment
    Answer: D
  23. Who invented the World Wide Web (WWW)?
    A. Starbuck
    B. Konzes and Poner
    C. Tim Berners-Lee
    D. Ted Williams
    Answer: C
  24. The type of environment defined by the form of government (military or civilian) and its policies is the ________.
    A. Technological environment
    B. Political environment
    C. Legal environment
    D. Economic environment
    Answer: B
  25. A military government tends to create a more stable business environment than a civilian government.
    A. True
    B. False
    Answer: B
  26. Who stated that business is more likely to be constrained under a military regime?
    A. Kirzner (1997)
    B. Udu (2004)
    C. Ahiauzu (1989)
    D. Okafor et al. (2001)
    Answer: D
  27. Which environment is composed of legislations, foreign trade rules, taxation policies, environmental protection statutes, and other operational laws guiding entrepreneurial activity?
    A. Legal environment
    B. Political environment
    C. Economic environment
    D. International environment
    E. Both A and B
    Answer: A
  28. The environment concerned with prevailing economic conditions is the ________.
    A. Socio-cultural environment
    B. External environment
    C. Economic environment
    D. Internal environment
    Answer: C
  29. All of these are socio-cultural elements of the external environment except:
    A. Consumerism
    B. Centralization and decentralization of planning
    C. Attitudes toward work and leisure
    D. Lifestyle changes
    E. Development of social institutions
    Answer: B
  30. Socio-cultural elements help determine product and service types, as well as their quality and quantity.
    A. True
    B. False
    Answer: A
  31. The ________ structure is also shaped by socio-cultural elements.
    A. Sales
    B. Cost
    C. Price
    D. All of the above
    Answer: C
  32. A response to unethical or unfair market practices is called ________.
    A. Consumerism
    B. Legal directorates
    C. Rationalism
    D. None of the above
    Answer: A
  33. What does NAFDAC stand for?
    A. Nigeria Agency for Food and Drug Administration Control
    B. Nigeria Agency for Food and Drug Administration Commission
    C. National Agency for Food and Drug Administration Commission
    D. National Agency for Food and Drug Administration Control
    Answer: D
  34. Which factor significantly influences what products and services are produced, which equipment is used, and how operations are managed?
    A. Politics
    B. Technology
    C. Economy
    D. Culture
    Answer: B
  35. Technology is made up of how many major components?
    A. 8
    B. 10
    C. 4
    D. 2
    Answer: D
  36. Which influence determines how tasks are carried out?
    A. Culture
    B. Economy
    C. Environment
    D. Technology
    Answer: D
  37. Technology impacts the creation of new products, machines, foods, materials, and services.
    A. True
    B. False
    Answer: A
  38. In the micro environment, an entrepreneur cannot fully control the extent of environmental influence on their activities.
    A. True
    B. False
    Answer: B
  39. Who is responsible for setting organizational goals and formulating policies and strategies to achieve business objectives?
    A. Employees
    B. Board of directors
    C. Competitors
    D. Owner
    Answer: B
  40. Which group in an organization works under a service contract?
    A. Employees
    B. Competitors
    C. Suppliers
    D. Owner
    Answer: A
  41. Who provides raw materials, financial resources, or critical information to an organization?
    A. Owners
    B. Board of directors
    C. Employees
    D. Suppliers
    Answer: D
  42. Who asserted that competition fosters an environment in which efficiency thrives?
    A. Ahiauzu (1989)
    B. Okafor et al. (2011)
    C. Udu (2004)
    D. Kirzner (1997)
    Answer: C
  43. Entrepreneurs operate as competitors because they vie for market leadership.
    A. True
    B. False
    Answer: A
  44. An unsatisfied demand for goods or services that can be profitably met is called a ________.
    A. Technological environment
    B. Business opportunity
    C. Business environment
    D. None of the above
    Answer: B
  45. Indicators of a business opportunity include which of the following?
    A. Natural disasters
    B. Advertisements in media
    C. Discussions with peers or colleagues
    D. Both B and C
    E. All of the above
    Answer: E
  46. Who defined an entrepreneur as someone who finds new combinations of resources and creates products that did not previously exist?
    A. Schumpeter
    B. Kirzner
    C. Israel
    D. Starbuck
    Answer: A
  47. According to Israel Kirzner, entrepreneurs are disruptive forces because the introduction of new combinations renders existing ones obsolete.
    A. True
    B. False
    Answer: B
  48. Who serves the creative function within entrepreneurship?
    A. The disruptive role of entrepreneurs
    B. Innovators
    C. Inventors
    D. Creditors
    Answer: B
  49. Who serves the financing function within entrepreneurship?
    A. Inventors
    B. Innovators
    C. Creditors
    D. Debtors
    Answer: C
  50. Which view sees entrepreneurship as an equilibrating force where entrepreneurs discover unnoticed profit opportunities and act upon them?
    A. Starbuck (2001)
    B. Schumpeter (1942)
    C. Israel (1934)
    D. Kirzner (1973)
    Answer: D
  51. Who attempted to reconcile the Schumpeterian and Kirznerian perspectives on entrepreneurship?
    A. Holcombe (1998)
    B. Taylor (1995)
    C. Altany (1989)
    D. Starbuck (1990)
    Answer: A
  52. ________ refers to the generation of ideas and their practical application.
    A. Entrepreneurial business
    B. Business environment
    C. Business
    D. Entrepreneurship
    Answer: D
  53. Who are individuals tasked with implementing investment ideas?
    A. Business owners
    B. Entrepreneurs
    C. Board of directors
    D. All of the above
    Answer: B
  54. Which of the following are barriers to entrepreneurship?
    A. Misunderstanding the concept
    B. Inadequate infrastructure
    C. Celebrating fraudsters
    D. Both A and C
    E. Both A and B
    Answer: E
  55. Someone who has capital and can accurately assess the feasibility and viability of an opportunity is called a ________.
    A. CEO
    B. Investor
    C. Venture capitalist
    D. Wealthy individual
    Answer: C
  56. Is it true that a venture capitalist is a money lender who charges interest?
    A. True
    B. False
    Answer: B
  57. A venture capitalist aims to be a ________, not just a shareholder in the business.
    A. Owner
    B. Co-founder
    C. Buyer
    D. All of the above
    Answer: B
  58. Technology remains the most influential element among all other factors.
    A. True
    B. False
    Answer: A
  59. In volatile political climates, which system is usually the norm for astute entrepreneurs?
    A. Dictatorial
    B. Autocratic
    C. Democratic
    D. Turbulent
    Answer: C
  60. The Greek word “techne” translates to ________.
    A. Speech
    B. Art or craft
    C. Beauty
    D. Mystery of words
    Answer: B
  61. ________ is defined as the methods or techniques for converting inputs into outputs efficiently.
    A. Production
    B. Methodology
    C. Technology
    D. Organization
    Answer: C
  62. Who defined technology as applying scientific principles in research, design, development, production, distribution, and services?
    A. Osuala (1995)
    B. Onuokwo (1998)
    C. Miller (2005)
    D. Byers (2010)
    Answer: A
  63. Who described technology as using scientific processes and products to provide goods and services that enhance human life?
    A. Byers (2010)
    B. Osuala (1995)
    C. Onuokwo (1998)
    D. Miller (2005)
    Answer: C
  64. Who defined technology as applying scientific knowledge and principles to practical tasks for creating goods and services for humankind?
    A. Miller (2005)
    B. Onuokwo (1998)
    C. Byers (2010)
    D. Osuala (1995)
    Answer: A
  65. ________ refers to the increase in knowledge, improvement in skills, or discovery of new methods that enhance people’s ability to complete tasks.
    A. Technological creation
    B. Technological development
    C. Technological invention
    D. Technological innovation
    Answer: D
  66. Technology is classified into which two categories?
    A. Simple and complex
    B. Hard and soft
    C. Simple and compound
    Answer: B
  67. Which of these is not an example of “hard technology”?
    A. Equipment
    B. Machinery
    C. Blueprint
    D. Finance marketing
    Answer: D
  68. Which of these is not an example of “soft technology”?
    A. Finance marketing
    B. Capital goods
    C. Management know-how
    D. Administrative techniques
    Answer: B
  69. ________ technology refers to when rudimentary methods are used in production processes.
    A. Labor-intensive
    B. Primitive
    C. Capital-intensive
    D. None of the above
    Answer: B
  70. ________ technology applies highly advanced methods.
    A. Capital-intensive
    B. Primitive
    C. Labor-intensive
    D. All of the above
    Answer: A
  71. There are how many defining features of technology?
    A. 5
    B. 9
    C. 3
    D. 7
    Answer: C
  72. Which of the following is a feature of technology?
    A. Technique—methodological approaches that are systematic and scientific
    B. Creative knowledge and application skills, involving psychomotor learning
    C. Specialized artifacts—tools, machines, equipment, and apparatus
    D. All of the above
    E. Only C and D
    Answer: D
  73. Who defined technology as the process of creating something new with added value by allocating necessary time and effort?
    A. Byers (2010)
    B. Udu et al. (2008)
    C. Hisrich and Peters et al. (2008)
    D. Thurik and Wennekers (2001)
    Answer: C
  74. Who defined entrepreneurship as establishing an innovative economic organization for gain or growth amid risk and uncertainty?
    A. Hisrich and Peters et al. (2008)
    B. Thurik and Wennekers (2001)
    C. Byers (2010)
    D. Udu et al. (2008)
    Answer: D
  75. ________ and ________ emphasize creativity and innovation that can transform society for the better.
    A. Research and entrepreneurship
    B. Technology and entrepreneurship
    C. Projects and invention
    D. Ideas and invention
    Answer: B
  76. Who defined “technological entrepreneurs” as business leaders who identify high-potential, tech-intensive opportunities and manage rapid growth with real-time decision-making?
    A. Prof. Tom Byers
    B. Prof. Hisrich Byers
    C. Prof. Udu Byers
    D. Prof. Jerry Byers
    Answer: A
  77. Technological entrepreneurship includes all of the following except:
    A. A technically feasible product
    B. A sustainable competitive advantage
    C. A business leadership style
    D. A large potential market
    E. A proven business model
    Answer: C
  78. How many elements comprise technological entrepreneurship?
    A. 15
    B. 10
    C. 9
    D. 7
    Answer: B
  79. ________ technologies establish entirely new technological paradigms.
    A. Disruptive
    B. Constructive
    C. Entrepreneurial
    D. Developmental
    Answer: A
  80. In technological entrepreneurship, which of the following is not considered a major risk?
    A. Financial
    B. Technological
    C. Personnel
    D. Environmental
    E. Market
    Answer: D
  81. Successful entrepreneurs cultivate enduring personal relationships based on mutual trust.
    A. True
    B. False
    Answer: A
  82. Entrepreneurship is solely about personal financial gain.
    A. True
    B. False
    Answer: B
  83. Entrepreneurial activity begins at the ________ level.
    A. Micro level
    B. Macro level
    C. Individual level
    D. Firm level
    Answer: C
  84. Achieving realization occurs at the ________ level.
    A. Firm level
    B. Macro level
    C. Individual level
    D. Individual level
    Answer: A
  85. At the ________ level, the sum of entrepreneurial activities forms a mosaic of competing experiments, ideas, and initiatives.
    A. Micro level
    B. Individual level
    C. Firm level
    D. Macro level
    Answer: D
  86. Which of the following is not a level of analysis?
    A. Micro level
    B. Individuals level
    C. Firm level
    D. Macro level
    Answer: A
  87. Promoting entrepreneurship relies on two primary pillars: ________ and ________.
    A. Strengthening entrepreneurial skills; improving the entrepreneurial framework
    B. Remuneration schemes; information programs
    C. Administrative burdens on new firms; SME schemes
    D. Stock markets; favorable banking treatment
    Answer: A
  88. ________ is the collection of sociological factors that affect a company’s ability to serve customers or sell goods and services.
    A. Entrepreneurship
    B. Technological activity
    C. Environment
    D. Innovation
    Answer: C
  89. ________ consists of forces that influence technology, enabling new products, markets, and orders.
    A. Technological activities
    B. Technological environment
    C. Technological innovations
    D. Technological inventions
    Answer: B
  90. Who defined the technological environment as the factors that affect business through new inventions, production methods, and technical improvements?
    A. OECD (2002)
    B. Goetz (1998)
    C. Roco et al. (2004)
    D. Vinod (2010)
    Answer: D
  91. Which of the following is not a principal function of the technological environment in business?
    A. Product life cycles
    B. Customer attitude changes
    C. Increased R&D activities
    D. Innovation and improved quality assurance
    E. Cost reduction
    Answer: E
  92. The technological environment is not the primary factor supporting the creation of new ventures worldwide.
    A. True
    B. False
    Answer: B
  93. ________ technologies are modern advances and innovations in various technological fields.
    A. Emerging
    B. Converging
    C. Primitive
    D. None of the above
    Answer: A
  94. ________ technologies denote significant advancements that break new ground in their fields.
    A. Innovative
    B. Primitive
    C. Converging
    D. Emerging
    Answer: D
  95. ________ technologies are those where a new method supplants previous technology, making it obsolete.
    A. Emerging
    B. Converging
    C. Disruptive
    D. Incremental
    Answer: C
  96. Technological growth encompasses which two categories?
    A. Emerging and converging technologies
    B. Incremental development and disruptive technologies
    C. New and primitive technologies
    D. New and converging technologies
    Answer: B
  97. Which of these is not an example of disruptive technologies?
    A. Replacing steam locomotives with diesel and electric engines
    B. Replacing horse-drawn carriages with automobiles
    C. Replacing car tires with spare tires
    D. Only A and B
    E. Only B
    Answer: C
  98. Which of the following is not an example of new and emerging technologies?
    A. Cognitive science
    B. Lithography studies
    C. Nanotechnology
    D. Robotics and artificial intelligence
    Answer: B
  99. ________ and ________ help improve internal efficiency and effectiveness for organizations, entrepreneurs, and entrepreneurship.
    A. Mapping tools and mobile technologies
    B. Web-based and interactive media
    C. Data-sharing platforms and interactive management
    D. Web-based and mapping tools
    Answer: C
  100. ________ new technologies focus on quality service in engineering networks and services.
    A. Generalized wireless networks
    B. Mobile computing
    C. Superfast USB
    D. Quality of Service (QoS)
    Answer: D
  101. Knowledge of global technological developments is often considered unimportant.
    A. True
    B. False
    Answer: B
  102. Nigeria’s innovation capabilities cover several key policy domains, including:
    A. Economic, regional, and industry development policy
    B. Labor market and industrial relations policy
    C. Education policy
    D. Science and technology policy
    E. All of the above
    Answer: E
  103. What percentage of Earth’s surface is covered by water bodies?
    A. 50%
    B. 29%
    C. 100%
    D. 71%
    Answer: D
  104. Standards for drinking-water quality are typically established by ________.
    A. Politicians or communities
    B. Governments or international bodies
    C. Communities or governments
    D. All of the above
    Answer: B
  105. “Potable water” is best defined as:
    A. Water that appears clear to the eye
    B. Water that has no odor
    C. Water pure enough for consumption with minimal risk of immediate or long-term harm
    D. None of the above
    Answer: C
  106. Viral gastroenteritis is a cause of waterborne illness.
    A. True
    B. False
    Answer: A
  107. Which organism causes typhoid?
    A. Rotavirus
    B. Norovirus
    C. E. coli
    D. Salmonella typhi
    Answer: D
  108. Cryptosporidiosis is caused by Giardia lamblia.
    A. True
    B. False
    Answer: B
  109. Water sources can be generally categorized into ________ and ________.
    A. Surface water and groundwater
    B. Surface water and pond water
    C. Borehole water and pond water
    D. Borehole water and surface water
    Answer: A
  110. Another name for portable water purification devices is “POU,” which stands for ________.
    A. Point-of-understanding
    B. Point-of-use
    C. Place-of-underground
    D. All of the above
    Answer: B
  111. Turbid creek water is typically caused by heavy rainfall.
    A. True
    B. False
    Answer: A
  112. Drinking-water treatment can be classified into two scales: ________.
    A. Small-scale and large-scale techniques
    B. Big-scale and small-scale techniques
    C. Small-scale and medium-scale techniques
    D. None of the above
    Answer: A
  113. Activated charcoal adsorption is not used for small-scale water treatment.
    A. True
    B. False
    Answer: B
  114. Which of these is not a small-scale water-treatment method?
    A. Filtration
    B. Boiling
    C. Chemical disinfection
    D. Steaming
    Answer: D
  115. During UV purification, when a germicidal UV photon is absorbed by one thymine adjacent to another thymine in DNA, a covalent bond (dimer) forms.
    A. True
    B. False
    Answer: A
  116. Entamoeba histolytica can be found in human feces.
    A. True
    B. False
    Answer: A
  117. All of the following microorganisms can cause diarrhea except:
    A. Giardia lamblia
    B. Entamoeba histolytica
    C. Salmonella typhi
    D. Cryptosporidium parvum
    Answer: C
  118. During filtration, pathogens are typically removed in the size range of ________.
    A. 0.1–0.5 µm
    B. 0.2–0.3 µm
    C. 0.3–0.5 µm
    D. 0.2–0.5 µm
    Answer: B
  119. The first method used in small-scale water treatment is ________.
    A. Filtration
    B. Boiling
    C. Chemical disinfection
    D. Activated charcoal adsorption
    Answer: B
  120. Solar distillation is a large-scale water-treatment technique.
    A. True
    B. False
    Answer: B
  121. Homemade water filters can be constructed on-site using local materials such as ________ and ________.
    A. Sand and charcoal
    B. Charcoal and cloth
    C. Grass and charcoal
    D. None of the above
    Answer: C
  122. Which of these is not a primary source of water for large-scale treatment?
    A. Groundwater
    B. Rainwater harvesting
    C. Rivers, canals, and lowland reservoirs
    D. Tap and borehole water
    Answer: D
  123. The first process in large-scale water treatment is ________.
    A. pH adjustment
    B. Sedimentation
    C. Pre-treatment
    D. Flocculation
    Answer: C
  124. A typical sachet-water plant comprises how many system components?
    A. Ten
    B. Two
    C. Five
    D. Four
    Answer: D
  125. Which of the following is not a system component in a typical sachet-water plant?
    A. Conveyance system
    B. Decentralized water-treatment system
    C. Packaging system
    D. Dumping system
    Answer: D
  126. Another name for a conveyance system in a sachet-water plant is ________.
    A. Piping system
    B. Disinfection units
    C. Tank assembly
    D. All of the above
    Answer: A
  127. A sachet-water machine can only package sachet water.
    A. True
    B. False
    Answer: B
  128. The main components of a sachet-water machine include all of the following except:
    A. Bag-forming device
    B. Sealing device
    C. Labeling device
    D. UV-disinfection lamp
    Answer: C
  129. Vertical and horizontal adjustments for a sachet-water machine prior to operation are denoted by which ranges?
    A. 1400 C–1700 C vertically and 2000 C–2500 C horizontally
    B. 100–120 C vertically and 50–100 C horizontally
    C. All of the above
    D. None of the above
    Answer: A
  130. Drinking water should be packaged in a ________.
    A. Clean, potable container
    B. White can with a blue cap
    C. Customized hygienically safe container
    D. Clean, colorless, odorless, tamper-proof container that is hygienically safe
    Answer: D
  131. Which of these is not used for bottle labeling?
    A. Gummed paper labels
    B. Shrink-film plastic labels
    C. Auto-sleeve labels
    D. Wrap-stick labels
    Answer: D
  132. The part of a sachet-water machine that tracks the number of bags produced is the ________.
    A. UV-disinfection lamp
    B. Recording device
    C. Filling and metering mechanism
    D. Automatic counter
    Answer: D
  133. Which of the following is not a requirement for bottled water packaging?
    A. Strength
    B. Power and might
    C. Color and clarity
    D. Purity
    Answer: B
  134. Mandatory certification for bottled water packaging is important to:
    A. Prevent theft
    B. Prevent underpricing
    C. Ensure quality
    D. Prevent adulteration and promote standardization
    Answer: D
  135. Which polymer is not used for packaging drinking water?
    A. Polyethylene (PE)
    B. Polypropylene (PP)
    C. Polyvinyl chloride (PVC)
    D. Polypeptide
    Answer: D
  136. PET stands for ________ in drinking-water packaging.
    A. Point Exchange Trader
    B. Polyethylene Tetrasulphate
    C. Polyethylene Terephthalate
    D. Polyethyl Tetrachloride
    Answer: C
  137. PC stands for ________ in plastic packaging for bottled water.
    A. Polyvinyl chloride
    B. Polycarbonate
    C. Polyethyl chloride
    D. Polypeptide carbonate
    Answer: B
  138. Which of the following is not a processing technique for polycarbonate (PC)?
    A. Projection
    B. Blow molding
    C. Injection molding
    D. Extrusion
    Answer: A
  139. Distilled water has a pH of ________.
    A. 5
    B. 8.7
    C. 6.2
    D. 7
    Answer: D
  140. HIPS is a polymer used for plastic packaging; it stands for ________.
    A. High Intra-Peptide Sequence
    B. High-Impact Polystyrene Site
    C. High-Impact Polypeptide
    D. High-Impact Polystyrene
    Answer: D
  141. To raise the pH of acidic water, which additives are used?
    A. Lime, soda ash, sodium hydroxide
    B. Calcium, potassium, sulfur
    C. All of the above
    D. None of the above
    Answer: A
  142. ________ is the stage of water clarification in large-scale treatment.
    A. Boiling
    B. Pre-treatment
    C. Flocculation
    D. All of the above
    Answer: C
  143. Another name for the sedimentation basin is the ________.
    A. Storage basin
    B. Drainage basin
    C. Clarifier (settling basin)
    D. None of the above
    Answer: C
  144. After removing most floc in large-scale treatment, water is filtered as the ________ step.
    A. Final step
    B. Third step
    C. First step
    D. Second step
    Answer: A
  145. Rapid sand filters are not a type of filter.
    A. True
    B. False
    Answer: B
  146. Which of the following is not a filter type used in large-scale water treatment?
    A. Slow sand filters
    B. Rapid sand filters
    C. Membrane filtration
    D. Organic filtration
    Answer: D
  147. Disinfection is achieved by removing harmful microbes and ________.
    A. Removing chemicals
    B. Adding microbes
    C. Adding disinfectant chemicals
    D. Removing disinfectant chemicals
    Answer: C
  148. Ozone is represented chemically as ________.
    A. O₂₃
    B. O₃₂
    C. O₃
    D. O₅
    Answer: C
  149. THMs and HAAs stand for ________ and ________, respectively.
    A. Trihalomethanes and Haloacetic acids
    B. Trihalogenmen and Hydrogen acetic acid
    C. All of the above
    D. None of the above
    Answer: A
  150. In-situ chemical oxidation is a method of ________.
    A. Drinking-water packaging
    B. Water-source management
    C. Water purification
    D. Water storage
    Answer: C
  151. The first stage of bottled-water packaging is ________.
    A. Bottle cleaning
    B. Bottle labeling
    C. Bottle filling
    D. None of the above
    Answer: C
  152. Which agent causes viral gastroenteritis?
    A. Rotavirus
    B. Norovirus
    C. Salmonella
    D. E. coli
    Answer: A

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